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Exam Code: BAS-004
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos ICM Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
In Presenter, when preparing data sources for the report shown in the exhibit, which type of source
must be created to produce the subtotals by payee?
A. Data Source
B. Subtotal Source
C. Aggregate Transformation
D. Computed Row
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the impact of locking model calendars?
A. It affects calculations partitioned by the same calendar.
B. It has no effect on any calculations in the model.
C. It affects every calculation in the model regardless of calendars used.
D. It only affects calculations related to payout.
Answer: A

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NO.3 How does information from the Web client reach the database server?
A. from the Admin client
B. from the Web Application server
C. from the CognosICMService
D. from the Web Application server to the CognosICMService
Answer: B

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NO.4 In which two situations would you perform the Optimize Model function? (Choose two.)
A. When a large volume of data has been imported.
B. When calculations have been modified.
C. When a calendar period has been locked.
D. When a large number of admin client users have been added.
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which table property can be changed after it is saved?
A. name
B. description
C. primary key
D. type
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which table type is built by joining one or more tables and calculations together?
A. Data
B. Hierarchy
C. Custom
D. View
Answer: D

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NO.7 What are two purposes of using components in Composer? (Choose two.)
A. for aesthetics
B. for granular application of security
C. for organization
D. for troubleshooting purposes
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 When using an effective dated table as a source for a calculation, which two statements are
true? (Choose two.)
A. Join start and end date of the effective dated table to a single date.
B. Join the calendar table to the effective dated table.
C. Join on both effective dates.
D. Join an effective dated table to another effective dated table (not Time).
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: SU0-224
Exam Name: Huawei (Huawei Certified Datacom Professional - Fast Certification)
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Total Q&A: 706 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is the maximum bits of a Class C address can be used for subnet?
A.6
B.8
C.12
D.14
Answer: A

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NO.2 A Notification message with Error Code 2 indicates an error OPEN message.
Which of the following error sub-codes can be contained in this OPEN message?
A. 1: indicates that the version number is not supported.
B. 2: indicates that the AS of the peer is incorrect.
C. 3: indicates that the BGP identifier is incorrect.
D. 4: indicates that the Optional Parameters filed is not supported.
Answer: ABCD

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NO.3 Which of the following configurations can be performed to implement fast failure detection on a
network?
A. Reduce the holdtime of Join/Prune messages.
B. Reduce the interval for an interface to send Hello messages.
C. Set up a PIM BFD session between network segment neighbors.
D. Reduce the interval for sending Join/Prune messages.
Answer: BC

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NO.4 Which are the functions of the route target on an MPLS VPN network?
A. Enable the peer PE to determine whichVPNv4 routes can be imported to the specified VRF.
B. Enable the peer PE to determine whichVPNv4 routes cannot be imported to the specified VRF.
C. Enable the peer CE to determine whichVPNv4 routes can be imported to the specified VRF.
D. Enable the peer CE to determine whichVPNv4 routes cannot be imported to the specified VRF.
Answer: AB

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NO.5 Which of the following technologies can reduce the scale of broadcast domain?
A. VLAN
B. Trunk
C. RARP
D. STP
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which following BGP attribute can used to define a set of prefixes with the same characteristics?
A. Origin
B. Nexthop
C. Community
D. MED
Answer: C

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NO.7 TRUE/FALSE: A device can be assigned an IP address 192.168.13.175, with the mask being 255. 255.
255. 240.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statements about OSPF packets are true?
A. Hello packets can be sent after OSPF is enabled on an interface.
B. LS Request packets are sent only after an adjacency is established.
C. LS Update packets contain detailed LSA information for LSDB synchronization.
D. LS Update packets are sent only after an adjacency is established.
Answer: ABC

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NO.9 In IPv4, which of the following is the SSM address range allocated by the IANA?
A. 232. 0. 0. 0/24
B. 225. 0. 0. 0/8
C. 232. 0. 0. 0/8
D. 239. 0. 0. 0/8
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the function of the peer ignore command?
A. Deletes a BGP peer.
B. Retains all configurations of the peer, and maintains the BGP peer relationship with the peer, but does
not receive the routes sent from the peer.
C. Retains all configurations of the peer, and maintains the BGP peer relationship with the peer, but does
not advertise routes to the peer.
D. Retains all configurations of the peer, interrupts the BGP peer relationship with the peer, and clears all
related routing information.
Answer: D

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NO.11 In OSPF, which of the following statements are incorrect regarding Router LSA generated by Router A.?
A. In Point-to-Point link type, Data is set to the interface IP address of RouterA.
B. In TransNet link type, Data is set to the interface IP address of RouterA.
C. In StubNet link type, Data is set to the interface IP address of RouterA.
D. In Virtual link type, Data is set to the Router ID of RouterA.
Answer: CD

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NO.12 Which of the following character strings matches the regular expression 100$?
A. 3100
B. 100
C. 1008
D. 100 200
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following are factors that affect QoS?
A. Bandwidth
B. Delay
C. Jitter
D. Loss of packet
Answer: ABCD

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NO.14 Which statement about the trunk interface is true?
A. A trunk interface is always connected to hosts.
B. Multiple VLAN IDs can be set on a trunk interface. The VLAN IDs can be the same as or different from
the PVID.
C. The trunk interface cannot have a PVID.
D. If the trunk interface receives a packet with a VLAN not in the allowed VLAN list, the trunk interface
broadcast the packet in the VLAN.
Answer: B

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NO.15 TRUE/FALSE: An IP-prefix-filter is used to filter IP prefixes and data packets.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.16 Besides an IPv4 address, a router distinguisher (RD) also contains a flag that distinguishes IP routes to
the same destination IP address in different VPNs.
How many bits are there in the flag?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
Answer: C

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NO.17 TRUE/FALSE: Only Router-LSAs and Network-LSAs are involved in intra-area route calculations.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.18 TRUE/FALSE: Only one BGP process can be configured on a router.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the attributes must exist in the BGP Update messages ?
A. LOCAL_PREF
B. NEXT_HOP
C. ORIGIN
D. AS PATH
Answer: BCD

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NO.20 Which of the following as-path attributes match this AS-path-filter?
ip AS-path-filter 1 permit 100$|400$
A. 100
B. 3100
C. 1234 1400
D. 300 400
Answer: ABCD

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Exam Code: HP0-M19
Exam Name: HP (HP Virtual User Generator Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 59 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 You have created several new Auto Correlation rules. A new tester on your team is preparing to
record a group of scripts on the same application on his workstation. What can you do to provide
the tester with the correlation rules?
A.You do not need to do anything. Auto Correlation rules are global and are available to all testers using
the same Controller machine.
B.Under the File menu, you select Zip Operations, then export to a zip file. You have the new tester import
the file into his script.
C.The Auto Correlation rules are saved in the script main folder. You create a share so the other tester
has access to the script main folder.
D.You export the Auto Correlation rules to a .cor file, and then have the new team member import the .cor
file into his Auto Correlation rules.
Correct:D

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NO.2 What is used, during the debugging process that will pause execution at a specific point in the
script?
A.Step button
B.Compile button
C.Execution Arrow button
D.Toggle Breakpoint button
Correct:D

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NO.3 Where do you define an Auto Correlation rule?
A.Test settings
B.General options
C.Run-time settings
D.Recording options
Correct:D

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NO.4 You want to have your script define a different e-mail address to each user during a registration
process for an e-commerce site, using the following format: testing99999@hp.com. Your script
will execute a maximum of 50 iterations. How can this be accomplished?
A.define a file parameter, start at 1, block size per Vuser: 50, number format: testing%05d@hp.com
B.define a unique number parameter, start at 1, block size per Vuser: 50, number format:
testing%05d@hp.com
C.define a random number parameter, minimum number: 1, maximum number: 99999, number format:
testing%05d@hp.com
D.define a sequential number parameter, minimum number: 1, maximum number 999, number format:
testing%05d@hp.com
Correct:B

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NO.5 Which section in a VuGen script is executed only one time, during Vuser initialization?
A.login
B.action
C.vuser_init
D.vuser_end
Correct:C

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NO.6 For debugging purposes, you would like to show a browser during replay. Where do you enable
this option?
A.General options
B.Playback options
C.Run-time settings
D.Recording options
Correct:A

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NO.7 You want to have each step in your script measured as a transaction in the Controller and not
shown in the Replay Log in VuGen. How can you accomplish this?
A.enable the automatic transaction in the Run-time settings
B.manually add transactions to each step from the Tree view
C.add a transaction to each page, using the transactions sub-task
D.select the option from the Tools menu to add transaction to each step in the Script view
Correct:A

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NO.8 You want to apply Script A Run-time settings, parameters, extra files, and actions to Script B.
How can this be accomplished?
A.save Script A script as a template, then apply the template to Script B
B.export Script A settings to a .cor file, then import the settings to Script B
C.select the option to create a new Vuser script from, then, select Script A
D.copy the .ext file located in Script A main directory to Script B main directory
Correct:A

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NO.9 What is the recommended Logging Run-time setting when playing back a script prior to manual
correlation?
A.Standard
B.Disable Logging
C.Extended -> Parameter Substitution
D.Extended -> Data Returned by Server
Correct:D

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NO.10 You want to emulate a call center for an airline. All representatives login in the morning, perform
their business processes, and log out at night. In one day, a representative will Create 40 flight
reservations, Modify 10 flight reservations, and Search for 20 flight reservations. A representative
cannot perform a Modify without performing a Search first. Which run logic would satisfy the load
testing goal?
A.Create - 67% Search - 16% Block0 - 17% Search Modify
B.Create - 57% Search - 29% Block0 - 14% Search Modify
C.Create - 57% Search - 29% Modify - 14%
D.Create - 67% Search - 16% Modify - 17%
Correct:A

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Exam Code: HP0-J12
Exam Name: HP (Supporting ESL E-Series and EML E-Series Libraries)
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Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What does the cabinet controller assembly of an ESL E-Series tape library provide a SCSI interface
to?
A.tape devices
B.library robotics
C.management interface card
D.e2400-160 Interface Controller
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which parts of the Extended Tape Library Architecture are SNIA compliant and support the Storage
Management Initiative Specifications (SMI-S)? (Select two.)
A.Secure Manager
B.Interface Manager
C.Interface Controller
D.Robotics Controller
E.Command View Tape Library
Answer: BE

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NO.3 What are the standard cabling requirements for the Interface Manager card of an EML E-Series tape
library?
A.4 x Ethernet to interface controllers, 1 x Ethernet to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
B.4 x Ethernet to interface controllers, 1 x Fibre Channel to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
C.4 x Fibre Channel to interface controllers, 1 x Ethernet to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
D.4 x Fibre Channel to interface controllers, 1 x Fibre Channel to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which HP document provides the most current, supported configurations for Enterprise class libraries
in a SAN environment?
A.Service Guide
B.SAN Design Guide
C.EBS Compatibility Matrix
D.training course documentation
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which tape device attribute does the ESL E-Series tape library Interface Manager use to determine
the physical location of each tape drive in the library?
A.bus number
B.SCSI address
C.serial number
D.drive slot position
Answer: C

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NO.6 When is Lock Element Addressing used in the ESL E-Series library?
A.with multiple tape drive clusters
B.as an electronic lock of the access doors
C.when multiple Interface Controllers are used
D.for cross-linked libraries with three or more cabinets
Answer: D

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
Which component is connected to port E1 of the cluster controller if it is in drive cluster 0 of an ESL
E-Series tape library?
A.cabinet controller
B.Interface Controller
C.lower cluster controller
D.Interface Manager card
Tape Library
Answer: A

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NO.8 With which management specification does the Command View TL Provider comply?
A.Direct Management Initiative (DMI)
B.Advanced Remote Management (ARM)
C.Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
D.Storage Management Initiative Specification (SMI-S)
Answer: D

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
What is the maximum supported number of drives that can be installed in a CLM configuration?
A.40
B.44
C.60
D.64
Answer: B

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NO.10 How often is the CommandView TL Health Summary screen updated?
A.every 30 seconds
B.at 15-minute intervals
C.whenever the library status changes
D.configurable to any value up to 900 seconds
Answer: C

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NO.11 What are the main considerations when choosing a location for an EML E-Series tape library? (Select
three.)
A.floor space
B.room height
C.power requirements
D.lighting requirements
E.grounding requirements
F.distance to disk storage
Answer: ACE

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NO.12 Which statement about an EML E-Series library is correct?
A.It allows serverless backup with only a few configuration steps if a Secure Manager license is installed.
B.The initial configuration can be done over the front panel, Command View TL or the serial port on the
robotics controller using CLI.
C.It is fully compliant with the Storage Management Initiative Specifications (SMI-S) and can be
configured with HP Storage Essentials.
D.It bridges the capabilities and features between the business-class HP StorageWorks MSL Series and
enterprise-class ESL E-Series tape libraries.
Answer: D

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NO.13 What can be connected using the vacant Ethernet port on the right side of the cabinet controller in an
ESL E-Series tape library?
A.an external LAN
B.cluster controllers
C.interface management card
D.Fibre Channel interface controllers
Answer: A

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
Which ESL E-Series tape library component does the exhibit display?
A.cluster controller
B.cabinet controller
C.Interface Manager
D.Interface Controller
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is the maximum cartridge slot count in an EML E-Series library?
A.325
B.470
C.505
D.595
Answer: C

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
Which ESL E-Series tape library component (used to carry data cartridges to a secondary cabinet) is
shown in the figure?
A.CLM arm
B.CLM controller
C.picker assembly
D.cartridge transfer robot
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is the purpose of the Stop button on the Operator Control Panel of ESL E-Series tape libraries?
A.to halt the robotics
B.to restart the library
C.to shut down the library
D.to pause a running backup process
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which scheme is used in the Command Line Interface for drive and slot numbers in ESL E-Series
tape libraries?
A.0 based
B.1 based
C.2 based
D.Hex based
Answer: B

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NO.19 What are possible causes of inventory failure in ESL E-Series tape libraries? (Select two.)
A.The library has a drive failure.
B.One of the clusters is disconnected.
C.The library front is facing bright sunlight.
D.Unapproved bar code labels are being used.
E.The Interface Controller is disconnected from the Fibre Channel switch.
Answer: CD

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NO.20 How many cartridge slots can be used in an 8U drive expansion module mounted at the bottom of an
EML E-Series library?
A.48
B.87
C.94
D.103
Answer: B

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NO.21 What is reported by the LP/PNL sensor of an ESL E-Series tape library?
A.library door status
B.x-axis motor position
C.y-axis motor position
D.magazines and load ports status
Answer: D

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NO.22 For which connection, other than the cabinet controller, is the I2C network cable used in ESL E-Series
tape libraries?
A.external LANs
B.cluster controllers
C.interface management cards
D.Fibre Channel interface controllers
Answer: B

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NO.23 What is the hard wired IP address of the Interface Manager card in an EML E-Series tape library on the
private network?
A.1.1.1.1
B.10.0.0.1
C.192.168.2.1
D.155.155.155.1
Answer: C

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NO.24 Click the Exhibit button.
What does Number 2 on the exhibit represent?
A.x axis motor
B.y axis motor
C.optical scanner
D.home position sensor
Answer: B

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NO.25 What are advantages of using Secure Manager EML? (Select two.)
A.It allows library partitioning.
B.Management of direct backup is allowed.
C.It provides faster access to tape devices.
D.Device level mapping is easily configured.
E.User access management is easily configured.
Answer: AD

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NO.26 Click the Exhibit button.
Which ESL E-Series tape library configuration is shown in the Operator Control Panel Library screen?
A.last cabinet
B.primary cabinet
C.secondary cabinet
D.stand-alone cabinet
Answer: B

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NO.27 What must be configured in CommandView TL when manually adding an ESL E-Series library?
A.library IP address
B.library serial number
C.tape drive and robot SCSI IDs
D.Interface Manager user name and password
Answer: A

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NO.28 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which item number represents the host Fibre Channel connections?
A.4
B.6
C.9
D.10
Answer: C

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NO.29 What can you do to speed up the power-on process while troubleshooting an EML 71e library?
A.Remove all media from the library.
B.Power-on the library with the load port door open.
C.Disable the auto audit, remembering to re-enable it and reboot the library before leaving the customer
site.
D.Configure inventory mode to bar code labels not required, remembering to reset bar code labels
required before leaving the customer site.
Answer: C

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NO.30 What is important to remember when changing from Manual to Automatic mode of the Interface
Manager of an ESL E-Series tape library?
A.All drives must be taken offline.
B.Fibre Channel cables must be unplugged.
C.Interface Controllers must be powered off first.
D.Any customizations created in Manual mode will be lost.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-090
Exam Name: HP (HP-UX Virtual Server Environment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 145 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which command line interface (CLI) command may be used to start (power on) a virtual machine?
(Select two.)
A. hpvmstart
B. hpvmstatus
C. hpvmcreate
D. hpvmmodify
E. hpvmconsole
Answer: AE

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NO.2 HP Serviceguard Manager can manage nodes that run which operating systems? (Select two.)
A. Linux
B. HP-UX v11i
C. HP-UX 10.20
D. OpenVMS v7.x
E. Window 2003 Advanced Server
F. Windows 2003 Exchange Server
Answer: AB

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NO.3 Which HP partitioning products will run inside an nPartition? (Select three.)
A. VMware
B. containers
C. Dynamic LPars
D. Virtual Partitions
E. Dynamic System Domains
F. Secure Resource Partitions
G. HP Integrity Virtual Machines
Answer: DFG

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has consolidated six L2000 servers to Virtual Partitions in an rx8620 as shown in the diagram.
The Virtual Partitions are managed by Global Workload Manager (gWLM).
Which commands can be used to determine how many processors are allocated to the Mater vPar?
(Select two.)
A. vparstatus on the Mater vPar
B. gwlmstatus on the Mater vPar
C. gwlm monitor on the Mater vPar
D. vparstatus on the gWLM central management server
E. gwlm monitor --workload=Mater on the gWLM central management server
Answer: AE

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NO.5 Click the Task button.
Using drag and drop, match each product with its minimum size.
Answer:

NO.6 Which high availability components are part of the HP Virtual Server Environment? (Select four.)
A. HP Sysplex
B. HP Hyperplex
C. HP Metrocluster
D. HP Serviceguard
E. HP Continentalclusters
F. HP Veritas Cluster Server
G. HP Serviceguard Storage Management Suite
Answer: CDEG

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NO.7 What is the maximum number of virtual CPUs that can run on a single physical CPU core with HP
Integrity Virtual Machines.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 40
Answer: C

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NO.8 A customer has several large mission critical workloads, each having different OS tuneables and
application patch levels.
They want to implement a midrange Integrity server solution and use partitioning to provide the highest
levels of isolation.
Which VSE approach is best?
A. nPartitions
B. Virtual Partitions
C. Integrity Virtual Machines
D. Process Resource Manager
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is the HP definition of virtualization?
A. the process of abstracting applications and operating systems from physical resources
B. an approach to IT that pools and shares resources so utilization is optimized and supply automatically
meets demand
C. an approach that allows you to run multiple operating systems at the same time on the same server
without rebooting or repartitioning your disk
D. the process of presenting a logical grouping or subset of computing resources so that they can be
accessed in ways that are different than the physical configuration
Answer: B

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NO.10 Where can Secure Resource Partitions (that use HP Process Resource Manager) run? (Select two.)
A. Virtual Partitions
B. Linux on Integrity
C. HP Integrity Virtual Machines Host
D. HP Integrity Virtual Machines Guest
Answer: AD

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NO.11 Which virtualization feature is unique to HP Integrity Servers with VSE versus IBM pSseries servers?
A. resource partitioning within a single OS image
B. sub-processor partitions executing separate OS images
C. single processor partitions executing separate OS images
D. electrically isolated partitions executing separate OS images
Answer: D

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NO.12 There are multiple methods for configuring WBEM authentication credentials for managed systems in
HP Systems Insight Manager.
Select any two of these methods from the options below. (Select two.)
A. mxinitconfig command
B. vseinitconfig command
C. mxagentconfig command
D. mxnodesecurity command
E. First Time Wizard user interface
F. Options -> Protocol Settings -> Discovery user interface
G. Options -> Protocol Settings -> Global Protocol Settings user interface
H. Options -> Protocol Settings -> System Protocol Settings user interface
Answer: DG

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NO.13 What are key benefits of server virtualization?
A. improved reliability and high availability, lower total cost of ownership
B. higher server utilization, increased time to production for new systems
C. higher server utilization, lower total cost of ownership, better application performance
D. system administration is simplified due to less complexity, better application performance
Answer: C

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NO.14 In which server infrastructure can you deploy the HP Virtual Server Environment?
A. HP ProLiant servers
B. HP NonStop servers
C. Unix servers from all vendors
D. HP Integrity and HP 9000 servers
Answer: D

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NO.15 What are the partitioning components of the HP Virtual Server Environment? (Select four.)
A. vPars
B. nPars
C. containers
D. dynamic LPars
E. Dynamic System Domains
F. HP System Insight Manager
G. HP Integrity Virtual Machines
H. HP Secure Resource Partitions
Answer: ABGH

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NO.16 Your company has an installed base of servers with an average utilization of 10% and an average
peak utilization of 40%.
What is the best solution to implement to improve server utilization and reduce costs?
A. high availability - increasing the number of redundant servers
B. patching - updating every operating system instance to the latest revision
C. server upgrades - replacing old servers with newer, more powerful servers
D. consolidation - stacking multiple applications and/or operating systems on fewer servers
Answer: D

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NO.17 Click the Task Button.
Using drag and drop, match each virtualization solution with the correct description.
Answer:

NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
You want to manage Bullseye and Hannah vPars with HP Global Workload Manager (gWLM). You want
to ensure that, if possible, utilization does not exceed 85% for either workload; even if it means activating
Temporary Instant Capacity. In addition, you also want to maximize the flexibility of the solution.
How should you set up the gWLM policies?
A. CPU Utilization policy with a min of 1 CPU, max of 5 CPUs, target utilization of 85%
B. Own Borrow policy with a min of 1 CPU, max of 8 CPUs, target utilization of 85%
C. CPU Utilization policy with a min of 1 CPU, max of 7 CPUs, target utilization of 85%
D. Percent Utilization policy with a min of 1 CPU, max of 5 CPUs, target utilization of 85%
Answer: C

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NO.19 Your company purchases servers for a single application and normally sizes them for the anticipated
maximum load expected in three years. However, many times the actual application never grows beyond
the initial size.
Which HP Virtual Server Environment component reduces costs while ensuring that the capacity is
available if the application grows in size?
A. HP Partitioning solutions
B. HP Utility Pricing solutions
C. HP High Availability solutions
D. HP Virtual Server Environment Suite
Answer: B

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NO.20 Click the Task button.
Using drag and drop, match each partitioning product with its isolation level. There is more than one
correct answer.
Answer:

NO.21 Which virtualization feature is unique to HP Integrity Servers with VSE versus SUN Solaris servers?
A. resource partitioning within a single OS image
B. secure resource access within a single OS image
C. sub-processor partitions executing separate OS images
D. electrically isolated partitions executing separate OS images
Answer: C

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NO.22 A university implements an Integrity server solution with VSE. Three departments have combined
their money to purchase this server and have configured three vPars; one for each department. There are
no Instant Capacity processors in the system.
Which approach ensures each department receives their fair share of the server, yet also allows other
departments use of unused CPU cycles?
A. gWLM with processor sets
B. gWLM with Own Borrow policies
C. PRM with the fair share scheduler
D. WLM with Temporary Instant Capacity processors
Answer: B

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NO.23 A customer running an Internet store closes their books every night and therefore has an end-of day
processing requirement for extra processor power for one hour.
Which UNIX virtualization solution provides one extra processor for one hour and is available uniquely
from HP (versus IBM or SUN UNIX solutions)?
A. resource partitioning within a single OS image
B. permanently activating a processor within a single OS image
C. temporarily activating a processor within a single OS image for an hour
D. flexible partitioning of multiple OS images with a single processor granularity
Answer: C

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NO.24 Which virtualization feature is unique to HP Integrity Servers with VSE versus SUN Solaris servers?
A. resource partitioning within a single OS image
B. secure resource access within a single OS image
C. temporarily activating processors within a single OS image
D. electrically isolated partitions executing separate OS images
Answer: C

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NO.25 Click the Task button.
Using drag and drop, match each partitioning product with the correct I/O resource granularity.
Answer:

NO.26 Your company has a lot of under-utilized HP Integrity servers. However, whenever a new project starts,
it takes weeks to months to provision (plan, get approval, order, install, and configure) a new server.
How can the HP Virtual Server Environment (HP VSE) solutions help shorten the time to deploy a new
operating system instance?
A. They allow you to order servers with unpurchased capacity.
B. They allow you to outsource some of your peak computing requirements to HP.
C. They help plan new servers so that the server is large enough to handle the workload.
D. They allow you to identify free capacity on your existing servers and provision new operating systems
in that capacity.
Answer: D

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NO.27 A university implements an Integrity server solution with VSE. Three departments have combined
their money to purchase this server and have configured three vPars; one for each department. There are
Instant Capacity processors in the system.
Which approach ensures each department receives their fair share of the server, yet also allows other
departments use of unused CPU cycles?
A. PRM with fair share scheduler groups
B. gWLM with fair share scheduler groups
C. WLM with a processor set for each vPar
D. gWLM with Own Borrow policies on each vPar
Answer: D

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NO.28 A customer running an Internet store closes their books every night and therefore has an end-of-day
processing requirement for extra processor power for one hour.
Which virtualization solution can automatically provide one extra processor for one hour and is available
uniquely from HP (versus IBM or SUN UNIX solutions)?
A. Workload Manager to activate iCAP processors
B. PRM to dynamically increase pSet size for one hour
C. Global Workload Manager to activate TiCAP processors for one hour
D. Partition Manager to shift one processor into the needed partition for one hour
Answer: C

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NO.29 What are the intelligent control products in the HP Virtual Server Environment? (Select four.)
A. HP VirtualCenter
B. HP Virtualization Engine
C. HP Server Migration Pack
D. HP Integrity Essentials iLO
E. HP Systems Insight Manager
F. HP Integrity Essentials VMotion
G. HP Virtual Machine Management Pack
H. HP Integrity Essentials Capacity Advisor
I. HP Integrity Essentials Virtualization Manager
J. HP Integrity Essentials Global Workload Manager
Answer: EHIJ

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NO.30 What are the utility pricing components of the HP Virtual Server Environment? (Select four.)
A. Pay-per-use
B. Trial Capacity
C. Instant Capacity
D. On/Off Capacity
E. Standby Capacity
F. Grid Compute Utility
G. Pay-per-transaction
H. Global Instant Capacity
I. Temporary Instant Capacity
J. Capacity Upgrade On Demand
Answer: ACHI

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Exam Code: HP0-790
Exam Name: HP (HP ProCurve Routing Switch Essentials v5.21)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 57 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 The global context in the running configuration of a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m includes
the spanning-tree single 802-1w command. However, each of the VLAN contexts includes the
spanning-tree command. How will the switch implement Spanning Tree?
A.The switch will implement the Spanning Tree version included in BPDUs it receives from neighbors.
B.The switch will implement a single instance of IEEE 802.1w.
C.The switch will not join a Spanning Tree because of the mismatch between configured versions.
D.The switch will implement per-VLAN IEEE 802.1D and ignore the global configuration command.
Correct:B

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NO.2 The administrator of a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m enters spanning-tree in the global
configuration context. Which Spanning Tree topology is enabled on the switch?
A.Single-instance Spanning Tree
B.Rapid Spanning Tree
C.Extended Spanning Tree
D.Per-VLAN Spanning Tree
Correct:D

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NO.3 What is the size of the address range specified in the following ACL entry? access-list 1 permit
192.168.192.0 0.0.1.255?
A.256 addresses
B.512 addresses
C.1,024 addresses
D.65,536 addresses
E.16,777,216 addresses
Correct:B

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NO.4 You must set 802.1w Bridge Priorities for a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m and a Switch 5300xl.
What is a difference between the Bridge Priority settings on these two models?
A.On the 9300m, the Bridge Priority is set at actual value. The 5300xl uses a multiplier.
B.The 9300m supports 4096 Bridge Priority values. The 5300xl supports 16.
C.On the 5300xl, 0 is the lowest Bridge Priority. On the 9300m, 0 is the normal priority.
D.The 5300xl supports a separate Bridge Priority for each STP instance. On the 9300m, a single priority
is applied to all STP instances.
Correct:A

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NO.5 A customer network includes a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m and several 5300xl switches. If
the 5300s are configured at default, which protocol must be enabled on the 9300m in order for all
the switches to participate in a single Spanning Tree domain?
A.IEEE 802.1X
B.IEEE 802.1Q
C.IEEE 802.1s
D.IEEE 802.1w
Correct:D

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Exam Code: HP0-J23
Exam Name: HP (Implementing MSA Storage Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 77 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of hosts that can be connected to an MSA2012fc?
A.16
B.32
C.64
D.128
ANSWER: C

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NO.2 What are key features of the MSA2012i? (Select three.)
A.support for up to 64 hosts
B.controller-based replication capability
C.support for up to 16 servers
D.snapshot and clone capability
E.automated active/passive failover
F.hardware active/active failover
ANSWER: CDF

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NO.3 How many ports are available on an HP StorageWorks 4/32 SAN switch base system?
A.12
B.16
C.20
D.28
ANSWER: B

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NO.4 How many volume copies and snapshots are supported when using an MSA2012i storage array?
A.64 volume copies and 64 snapshots
B.64 volume copies and 128 snapshots
C.128 volume copies and 64 snapshots
D.128 volume copies and 128 snapshots
ANSWER: C

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NO.5 Your customer wants to share data among many servers in their LAN.
Which storage solution is most suitable for this customer?
A.Network Attached Storage
B.Internet SCSI
C.Storage Area Network
D.Fibre Channel over IP
ANSWER: A

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
Which function does a Network Storage Router (NSR) provide?
A.backup accelerator for 2Gb SANs
B.two-stage backup capabilities for SAN environments
C.Fibre Channel-to-SCSI bridge
D.data encryption to the tape device
ANSWER: C

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NO.7 What is the Recovery Point Objective?
A.the amount of data that must be recovered
B.the amount of time the restoration takes for all data
C.the amount of data you can afford to lose
D.the amount of time you can afford to be without the data
ANSWER: C

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NO.8 Which component enables access to block storage on a Fibre Channel SAN across an
Ethernet network?
A.Fibre Channel Switch
B.Ethernet Switch
C.iSCSI to Fibre Channel bridge
D.FC-IP gateway connector
ANSWER: C

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NO.9 Which data backup features are introduced as part of a SAN? (Select three.)
A.reduction of congestion
B.elimination of single point of failure
C.elimination of database downtime for backup
D.efficient utilization of storage resources
E.reduction of power outage risk in the storage network
F.improvements of backup window
ANSWER: BCE

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NO.10 What are benefits of storage consolidation to a customer? (Select two.)
A.regular, mandatory maintenance hours
B.more efficient storage growth
C.higher availability through decentralized storage pools
D.better disk capacity utilization than DAS
E.eliminates the need for a backup
ANSWER: CE

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NO.11 How does the Storage Management Utility distinguish users while they are connected to an MSA2000
Family Modular Smart Array controller?
A.by name of the connected user
B.by IP address of the connected client
C.by WWN of the management host
D.by certificate issued by the Storage Management Utility
ANSWER: B

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NO.12 Which technologies are used to transmit data over IP networks? (Select two.)
A.FC-over-ATM
B.iSCSI
C.FC-IP
D.ESCON
E.FICON
ANSWER: AE

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NO.13 Click the Task button. Click on the area where a post configuration successful (green) message would
appear.
Answer:

NO.14 Which disk drive technology is best suited to sequential-access data and secondary storage
applications within an MSA2000 Family array system?
A.SCSI
B.SAS
C.FATA
D.SATA
E.FC SCSI
ANSWER: D

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NO.15 You are specifying a storage solution for your customer, but the customer has limited skills to configure
the solution. The MSA2012fc has a new feature called Automatic Virtual Disk Creation which will help the
customer configure the array.
What must you ensure when specifying the solution?
A.Only one type of disk (SAS or SATA) is specified.
B.Only SAS drives are specified.
C.The solution is a dual controller solution.
D.A minimum of two disk enclosures is connected.
ANSWER: A

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NO.16 What is a Recovery Time Objective?
A.maximum duration of data restore per system
B.maximum acceptable time interval for business data unavailability
C.maximum time frame for restoring data of all systems
D.maximum time frame for data loss in case of failure
ANSWER: B

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NO.17 What are high availability features of a SAN? (Select two.)
A.online storage migration
B.backup multiplexing
C.dynamic failover protection
D.LAN-free backup
E.storage server clustering
ANSWER: CE

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NO.18 Which action is performed by MultiPath I/O if the Device Specific Module (DSM) returns
an inactive path to the system?
A.The automatic load balancing policy is disabled.
B.Load balancing policy is reduced by this path.
C.A path failover is initiated.
D.The inactive path is verified again.
ty
ANSWER: C

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NO.19 Where is the MSA Storage Management Utility web server located?
A.on each of MSA controller modules
B.on the master MSA controller module
C.on the SAN management server
D.on any server connected to the SAN
ANSWER: A

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NO.20 Which physical or logical storage components can be managed using the HP StorageWorks MSA2000
Family Storage Management Utility? (Select three.)
A.virtual disks
B.disk groups
C.replication groups
D.pre-fetch cache
E.master volumes
F.drive modules
ANSWER: AEF

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Exam Code: HP0-J29
Exam Name: HP (Replication Solutions for the HP StorageWorks EVA)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 When designing EVA8100 and EVA4400 in a five-fabric 8-port to 4-port configuration, which ratio
of host ports to replication ports is supported?
A.1:4
B.2:4
C.3:1
D.4:2
Correct:C

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NO.2 Which capabilities does HP StorageWorks EVA Dynamic Capacity Management Software
provide?
A.the ability to provision storage on the fly
B.the ability to monitor EVA Vdisks and DR groups
C.the ability to monitor Vdisk performance and relocate as required
D.the ability to grow and shrink volumes as required
Correct:D

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NO.3 When building a six-fabric configuration using FC-to-IP, how many dedicated gateways are
required?
A.2
B.8
C.4
D.12
Correct:C

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NO.4 Implementing N_Port ID virtualization (NPIV) in a SAN provides certain advantages. Which
statements are true about implementing such a solution? (Select two.)
A.NPIV is required if there is 2:1 or greater server-to-uplink ratio on a fully populated enclosure with 16
server blades.
B.You can only take advantage of NPIV when configured with HP Brocade SAN switches in C-Class
blade enclosures.
C.In large fabrics, NPIV helps to avoid exceeding domain count limits with multiple blade enclosures.
D.NPIV makes a single Fibre Channel port appear as multiple virtual ports, each having its own N_Port ID
and virtual WWN.
E.NPIV must be managed separately from the switches. However, it uses the common Fabric OS so that
it can be consistently managed with the
F.
Correct:C D

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NO.5 What is meant by the expression replication relationships = 3:1 in the HP StorageWorks
Enterprise Virtual Array Compatibility Reference Guide? (Select two.)
A.Using synchronous replication, a maximum of three hops between any two Enterprise Virtual Arrays is
supported.
B.One Enterprise Virtual Array may have replicated volumes on three other Enterprise Virtual Arrays.
C.Three Enterprise Virtual Arrays may have replicated volumes on a fourth Enterprise Virtual Array.
D.Using asynchronous replication, a maximum of three links between any two Enterprise Virtual Arrays is
supported.
E.One Enterprise Virtual Array may have a single volume replicated to three other Enterprise Virtual
Arrays.
Correct:B C

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NO.6 What is a demand allocated snapshot also known as?
A.replica snapshot
B.dynamic snapshot
C.instantaneous snapshot
D.virtual snapshot
Correct:D

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NO.7 When implementing VMware Site Recovery Manager (SRM) in a Continuous Access EVA
environment, what is required in addition to the SRM software?
A.Replication Solution Manager host agent
B.HP EVAx000 VDS1.0 and VDS1.1/VSS Hardware Providers
C.HP StorageWorks EVA Virtualization Adapter
D.HP EVA VDS/VSS 2.0 Hardware Providers
Correct:C

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NO.8 A.What would you use to obtain a Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of zero in failsafe mode and a low
B.performance impact?
C.a latency less than or equal to 10ms in enhanced asynchronous replication mode
D.a latency less than or equal to 120ms in asynchronous replication mode
E.a 4Gb/s link with low latency in synchronous replication mode
F.an 8Gb/s link with medium to high latency in synchronous replication mode
Correct:C

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NO.9 A Windows server is running Command View and HP Replication Solutions Manager (RSM).
While executing an RSM replication script, it is rebooted by the addition of new security patches
from Microsoft. What happens to that script?
A.System shutdown is delayed until the replication script is finished.
B.Any snapshots and snapclones currently in progress are suspended.
C.Running replication tasks are queued and continued after the reboot.
D.The replication script is aborted and will require a manual restart.
Correct:C

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NO.10 A.Which functionality allows them to maintain a copy of the original Vdisk and, while in a normalized state,
is
B.automatically updated whenever the source Vdisk is updated?
C.synchronized mirrorclones
D.synchronous Continuous Access
E.synchronized containers
F.enhanced asynchronous Continuous Access
Correct:A

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