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Exam Code: 9A0-125
Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe Photoshop Lightroom 2 ACE Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 136 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which of the following options can you use to revert back to the Lightroom default settings?
A. Double-clicking individual slider controls.
B. Clicking the General - Zeroed preset in the Presets panel.
C. Choosing Undo from the Edit menu.
D. Clicking the Reset button.
Answer: D

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NO.2 When you view a PSD file in Adobe Bridge, which of the following lets you view the file information?
A. Metadata
B. File Description
C. Info
D. Keywords
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following blending modes is available only for the painting tools and allows you to add the
blend color only to transparent pixels of a layer?
A. Clear mode
B. Behind mode
C. Multiply mode
D. Darken mode
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.4 You create an image for the Web. You used less than 256 colors in the image. The image contains
some transparent areas. The Image also has sharp edges including type. In which of the following file
formats will you save the image?
A. TIFF
B. JPEG
C. GIF
D. BMP
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.5 Which of the following options of Photomerge is used to select one image and set it as the vantage
point for the panorama?
A. Perspective
B. Reposition
C. Collage
D. Auto
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following statements best describes the layer groups?
A. It groups the similar layers in one smart object.
B. It is a set of grouped layers in one group folder.
C. It groups the similar layers in one group folder.
D. It compiles multiple layers in one layer.
Answer: B

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NO.7 John works as a Graphics Designer in the Fashion Tech Inc. Currently, he is working on the
Photoshop CS4 Extended Edition. While working on an HDR image, he wants to apply the liquefy filter.
What steps should he perform to apply the filter on an HDR image?
A. Photoshop CS4 supports theliquify filter for the 32 Bits/Channel HDR image.
B. Convert the 32 Bits/Channel HDR image to 8 Bits/Channel HDR image.
C. Apply the smart filter first before applying theliquify filter.
D. Convert the 32 Bits/Channel HDR image to 16 Bits/Channel HDR image.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.8 Which of the following best describes the Camera RAW format?
A. Unprocessed, uncompressed full color picture
B. A processed but uncompressed image format
C. Unprocessed, uncompressed grayscale image data
D. A compressed image format produced form digital camera
Answer: C

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NO.9 You have created a catalog of images on your laptop while shooting on location. Now, you want to
update the catalog by adding files that have been added to the folder but not imported into the catalog,
removing files that have been deleted, and scanning for metadata updates. Which of the following options
will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Click the question-mark icon in a thumbnail cell in the Grid view.
B. Click on the Update Catalog button in the Grid view.
C. Choose Library > Update Photos.
D. Choose Library > Synchronize Folder.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.10 Which of the following blending modes darkens the base color by increasing the contrast to reflect the
blend color?
A. Color Burn
B. Linear Burn
C. Clear
D. Behind mode
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.11 Which of the following tools in Photoshop is used to change the amount of the color saturation in an
image?
A. Burn
B. Clone Stamp
C. Sponge
D. Dodge
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.12 You are creating an image. You want to make multiple copies of a single object in the image. so that
when you edit one of the copies of the object, all the copies of the object are updated. What will you do to
accomplish the task?
A. Choose Image > Duplicate Object command.
B. Choose Image > Duplicate command.
C. Create a Smart Object.
D. Create duplicate layers.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.13 Which of the following statements truly explains the difference between a template and a preset?
A. You store a predefined layout in template and settings in preset.
B. A template is a predefined layout whereas a preset is always user generated.
C. Presets can be created, saved, and exported for other photographers to use, but template but not.
D. A template is a creative effect but a preset is a design pattern.
Answer: A

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Explanation:

NO.14 Which of the following is used to convert vendor specific raw data to universal raw data?
A. The Extract filter
B. The Convert to Profile command
C. The Assign Profile command
D. The Digital Negative Converter
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.15 You are working on a Raw image using the Adobe Camera Raw dialog box. What will happen if you
click on the Open button in the Camera Raw dialog box?
A. The originalRaw image is opened in Photoshop.
B. A newRaw image is opened in the Camera Raw dialog box.
C. A list ofRaw images is opened.
D. A copy ofRaw image is opened with the camera Raw settings applied in Photoshop.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following image adjustment tabs will you use to create special effects with color images?
A. Basic
B. Detail
C. Split Toning
D. Lens Corrections
Answer: C

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NO.17 .Drag and drop the appropriate tools to their respective descriptions.
Explanation:
The Sharpen tool is used to harden edges or area within an image. It works by increasing contrast of the
specified area. To use the Sharpen tool, drag the tool over the area of the image needed to be sharpen. It
sharps the image according to the size of the brush defined, and the strength and blending mode
specified in the Options bar. Hold down the Alt key (Windows) or the Options key (Mac) when this tool is
active to blur the image. The Sponge tool is used to change the amount of the color saturation in an
image. To change the color saturation, just click and drag with the tool on the image. The tool has two
modes, Saturate and Desaturate . When the Saturate mode is selected in the Options bar, the amount of
color saturation increases whereas the color saturation decreases when the desaturate mode is selected.
Effectiveness of the tool depends on the size of the brush defined and flow value specified in the Options
bar. The Spot Healing Brush tool works similarly to the Healing Brush tool. It enables a user to repair
imperfections of an image by painting with pixels around the retouched area of the image. It matches the
texture, lighting, transparency, and shading details of the pixels to the new surroundings, so that the
repaired pixels merge seamlessly with the rest of the image. The Dodge tool is used to lighten pixels in an
image and bring out the highlights. This tool lightens dark areas in the image according to the size of the
brush defined, range such as Shadows, Midtones or Highlights is selected, and the exposure value
specified in the Options bar. Hold down the Alt key (Windows) or the Options key (Mac) to temporarily
access the Burn tool and darken the image.

NO.18 When you printed an image, Lightroom used the image's native resolution, and will neither upsamplenor
downsample the file. What can be the cause of this situation?
A. You have set theLightroom to optimize the resolution, depending on the size of the print.
B. You have disabled the Print Resolution box.
C. Lightroom is using the default resolution of 240 ppi.
D. Lightroom is using the resolution of the last photograph that was printed.
Answer: B

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NO.19 You want to add a graphical watermark with copyright information in one of your photographs. Which of
the following statements are correct in this situation? Each correct Answer: represents a complete

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solution. Choose all that apply.
A. You can only apply a graphical watermark.
B. You cannot set or customize the size, placement, or appearance of text-based watermark.
C. You can specify the color with the Detail Text option in the Color Palette panel.
D. You can only apply a text-based watermark.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.20 When you open an HDR image in Photoshop, it looks very dark. Which of the following actions will you
take to adjust the image?
A. Choose Image > Adjustment > Brightness/Contrast
B. Choose Layer > New Adjustment Layer > Brightness/Contrast
C. Choose View > 32-Bit Preview Options.
D. Choose Edit > 32-Bit Image Adjustment.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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Exam Code: MAYA11-A
Exam Name: Autodesk (Maya 2011 Certified Associate)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which is the correct method to make the current transformations on the selected object be
the object's zero position
A. Edit>Delete option
B. Modify>Freeze Transformations option.
C. Modify>Delete Attribute Transformations option.
D. Skeleton>OrientJoint>Freeze Transformations option
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is meant by 'sampling'?
A. The amount of Rendering Layers to be calculated in an image
B. The amount of times the software will examine different areas of a pixel
C. The number of photons that get emitted into the scene.
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following BEST describes the Blend Shape deformer?
The Blend Shape deformer...
A. creates a joint system based on the topology of the surface
B. allows you use several target shapes to help reshape another piece of geometry.
C. is a special object you use to control the deformation effects of rigid skinning.
D. lets you manually sculpt NURBS, polygons, or Subdivision surfaces quickly with the stroke of a
brush
Answer: B

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NO.4 What effect does the Break Tangent action have on a selected animation tangent?
A. Allows manipulation of the in and out tangent handles individually so you can edit the curve
segment entering or exiting the key without affecting its opposite handle.
B. Causes the manipulation of an in or out tangent handle to affect its opposite handle equally
C. Specifies that when you move a tangent, only its angle can be changed.
D. Specifies that when you move a tangent its angle and weight can be changed.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What modes can you work in when modeling with Subdivision surfaces?
A. Polygon mode and NURBS mode
B. Standard mode and Polygon mode.
C. Standard mode and Coarser mode.
D. NURBS mode and Component mode.
Answer: B

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NO.6 How is a Soft Body different from a Rigid Body?
A. Afield can't be connected to Soft Body particles.
B. Rigid Bodies can't be affected by a Dynamic constraint.
C. A Soft Body can be keyframed using the Set Active Key command.
D. Rigid Bodies don't deform.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which file format lets you exchange complex data between Maya and other software while
preserving the data's overall behavior?
A. OBJ
B. FBX
C. DXF
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.8 What does the nConstraint Membership Tool for nCloth allows users to do?
A. Add vertices to a selected dynamic constraint
B. Remove vertices from a selected dynamic constraint
C. Both of the above.
D. Neither of the above.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: SD0-101
Exam Name: SDI (Service Desk Analyst Qualification)
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Total Q&A: 165 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which of the options best describes a key responsibility of a Service Desk Manager?
A. To deliver ad-hoc levels of service quality from the Service Desk
B. To promote the Service Desk to the organisation and users
C. To manage Incidents and Major Incidents
D. To develop and manage the Problem Management team
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which these options would NOT be a responsibility of the Service Desk?
A. Representing the IT organisation
B. Delivering first time fixes
C. Operating as a communications channel
D. Providing a reliable IT infrastructure
Answer: D

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NO.3 How would you characterise a failing team?
A. It is managed without SLAs
B. Its members are very touchy feely
C. Its members demonstrate low morale
D. It is solely focussed on business objectives
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your manager has emphasised the importance of establishing effective working relationships with
other teams in the organisation. Of these options, which is the most important activity you should
undertake to enable this to happen?
A. Learn about and recognise the roles and responsibilities of other teams
B. Ensure that your team is seen by users as their champion
C. Treat everyone according to their importance in the organisation
D. Make certain that the IT director is aware of inter-team communication issues
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the best way for an SDA to enhance the image of the Service Desk?
A. Dress to reflect your professionalism
B. Ensure users are aware that the Service Desk is the key component in IT
C. Provide accurate information to users without denigrating other teams
D. Advise users of resolutions via the weekly Service Desk email
Answer: C

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NO.6 Some things can get in the way of good communication which of these options has the biggest impact
on a Service Desk?
A. Noise and general chatter
B. Inappropriate SLAs in place
C. An unreliable IT infrastructure
D. The users status in the organisation
Answer: A

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NO.7 If you are asked to name a Service Desk best practice, which option would be relevant?
A. SAP
B. KCS
C. Problem Management
D. itSMF
Answer: B

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NO.8 What should an SDA reasonably expect of users when they contact the service desk for assistance?
A. To provide valuable information regarding their opinion of the Service Desk
B. To provide valuable information regarding their view of the SLA
C. To provide an opportunity to receive feedback regarding their technical ability
D. To provide the relevant information needed to resolve their incident
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of these options best describes a benefit of good teamwork?
A. There is always someone else to pick up any work you fail to do
B. There is commitment to team decisions
C. There is a specialist for each product or service
D. There is less need for person-to-person communication
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the best type of questioning to use to disengage a caller whilst ensuring a professional
approach to call management?
A. Reflective questions
B. Rapid questions
C. Open questions
D. Closed questions
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of these options best describes personal accountability?
A. Delivering excellent levels of service quality
B. Admitting to errors
C. Taking ownership of your teams Incidents and Service Requests
D. Behaving and dressing in a distinctive manner
Answer: B

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NO.12 Where would you find clear definitions of boundaries and procedures for dealing with inappropriate
behaviour?
A. Company policy documents
B. Incident Management documents
C. Service Desk procedure documents
D. Service Level Agreement documents
Answer: A

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NO.13 A new trainee is being inducted into the Service Desk and s/he questions why there are procedures
and the need for documentation. What should you tell him/her to justify the need for consistent
procedures and processes?
A. Clear procedures mean that everything is done uniformly to eliminate errors
B. Clear procedures mean that customers receive consistent service
C. SLAs and procedures ensure that staff will not be criticised if targets are not met
D. Consistent procedures mean that SLAs and OLAs will always be met
Answer: B

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NO.14 We should maintain a positive service attitude at all times; which option is the best reason for doing
so?
A. A good service attitude will improve SLA performance
B. Users will see the Service Desk as cheerful happy people
C. It will help to build confidence in the service
D. A bad attitude means that SLAs wont be met
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which option best describes one of the roles of an SDA?
A. Managing users expectations
B. Delivering problem support
C. Negotiating SLAs with customers
D. Achieving reporting targets
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of these options is NOT part of the correct procedure for putting a user on hold?
A. Asking the user for permission to remotely access their system
B. Communicating a valid reason for putting the user on hold
C. Giving the user a reasonable time frame
D. Regularly updating the user about the wait-time
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which option is a benefit of using Knowledge Management in a Service Desk?
A. This ensures that all staff will log Incidents uniformly
B. It removes the need for training of Service Desk staff
C. It reduces the Incident talk time for users
D. It reduces the overall cost of support
Answer: D

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NO.18 Your organisation documents company policies to which it expects all employees to adhere. What is
the most important reason for SDAs to ensure they work within these policies?
A. Company policies support consistent behaviour
B. Company policies emphasise deviations from acceptable behaviour
C. Company policies meet their managers criteria for success
D. Company policies support creative approaches for SDA activities
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of these options is a characteristic of a successfully performing team?
A. Attendance at team social events is mandatory.
B. The team leader closely manages everyone equally
C. A team member will do anything to be the best
D. Everyone actively listens to each other
Answer: D

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NO.20 Your organisation has recently implemented SLAs and OLAs. A new starter on your team has confided
in you that they dont really understand what an OLA is; how would you explain it to him/her?
A. It is a legally enforceable contract between a user and a supplier to ensure user satisfaction with
services offered
B. It is an ad-hoc arrangement between internal support teams that is helpful to the support of a contract
C. It is an agreement between internal support teams that defines the support necessary to meet delivery
of IT Services
D. It is a methodology used to measure compliance to standards of behaviour
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which option is the best example of a closed question?
A. What are the symptoms of your Incident?
B. Tell me what you were doing immediately prior to the Incident?
C. What version of the software do you have?
D. How can I be of help?
Answer: C

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NO.22 A list of desirable attributes included in a job description for a Service Desk Analyst should include ...
A. Seeing a users Incident or Service Request through to resolution, conveying a willingness to help and
being nice to senior management
B. Conveying a willingness to help, focussing on business needs and providing users with the best
possible service
C. Taking ownership of users Problems, maintaining a positive attitude and focussing your attention on
the user
D. Focussing on business needs, providing users with best possible service with an ability to answer a
high volume of calls
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which attribute would you expect from good team members?
A. They are nice to everyone
B. They have good timekeeping skills
C. They listen to other peoples point of view
D. They cover up their mistakes
Answer: C

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NO.24 A primary responsibility of the Service Desk is to
A. Manage Major Incidents
B. Act as the resolver for all users Incidents and Service Requests
C. Resolve Problems
D. Acknowledge and record all Incidents and Service Requests
Answer: D

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NO.25 Your manager has told you that the Service Desk team must provide excellent customer service at all
times. As an SDA, what is the most important thing you must do to ensure that this happens?
A. Always show plenty of sympathy to the users
B. Always follow the procedures you understand best
C. Always reprimand colleagues who fail to deliver service excellence
D. Always listen to what users tell you
Answer: D

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NO.26 Consider your responsibilities as an SDA: which of these options best describes one of your principal
responsibilities?
A. To provide easily understood and accurate answers to users questions
B. To provide technically detailed answers to users questions
C. To provide users with information about the workings of the Service Desk
D. To provide recommendations about technical courses to users
Answer: A

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NO.27 What is the best reason for an SDA to follow documented processes and procedures?
A. It ensures that all customers perform consistently
B. It ensures that the SDA performs consistently
C. It ensures that customers consistently provide positive feedback
D. It ensures that the manager is protected from irate users
Answer: B

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NO.28 In order to measure its efficiency, a Service Desk routinely measures First Contact Resolution
performance; what else might this data be used for?
A. To measure the effectiveness of the escalation procedure
B. To indicate levels of customer satisfaction
C. To measure how long users wait to speak to an SDA
D. To evaluate and adjust staffing levels
Answer: B

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NO.29 Why is it important to keep to your commitments to your team members?
A. It will help to ensure that bonuses are paid
B. My colleagues will admire my achievements
C. It improves the morale of the Service Desk
D. Management will not criticise my behaviour
Answer: C

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NO.30 Which option is NOT a characteristic of a successful team?
A. Trust is encouraged amongst team members
B. Support from senior management is received
C. League tables are published
D. Participation in the decision-making process is encouraged
Answer: C

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NO.1 A new user in the company would like to use BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager to activate
and manage their device. What is the first step?
A. Create a BlackBerry Enabled account for them on the server
B. Set a password for the user
C. Generate an Enterprise Activation password
D. Create a BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager password for the user
Answer: A

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NO.2 The BlackBerry Administration Service does which of the following?
A. Provides a secure connection between the device and the server
B. Maintains a connection with the BlackBerry Infrastructure
C. Communicates commands, IT policies, and profiles to the device
D. Manages the user accounts and devices
Answer: D

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NO.3 If users wish to perform a wired activation, which browser(s) is/are supported?
A. Windows Internet Explorer 8.0 and 9.0 (32-bit)
B. Windows Internet Explorer 8.0 and 9.0 (32-bit) or Safari 5 for Mac or later
C. Windows Internet Explorer 8.0 and 9.0 (32-bit) or Mozilla Firefox 10 or later
D. Windows Internet Explorer 8.0 and 9.0 (32-bit) or Google Chrome 12 or later
Answer: A

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NO.4 A device establishes connection against the BlackBerry environment by creating an
A. HTTP connection over Wi-Fi.
B. HTTP connection over Wi-Fi VPN, or IPPP .
C. SSL connection over Wi-Fi.
D. SSL connection over Wi-Fi, VPN, or IPPP .
Answer: D

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NO.5 A user requests an immediate password to activate a BlackBerry device but the user is not
found in the server by searching Administration Service, What should be done next?
A. Perform a quick user search to find the user
B. Add the user to the Activation Password group
C. Assign the Activation Password Software Configuration to the user
D. Create a BlackBerry enabled user with an activation password
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which three components are used to contact a device?
A. BlackBerry Router, BlackBerry Dispatcher, and BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
B. BlackBerry Router, BlackBerry Management Web Service, and BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
C. BlackBerry Dispatcher, BlackBerry Enterprise Management Web Service, and BlackBerry Web
Desktop Manager
D. BlackBerry Dispatcher, BlackBerry Administration Service, and BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which option best describes how to add a user to a BlackBerry Device Service (BDS) domain?
A. Login to BlackBerry Administration Console and click on "create a user" enter the user's full name
in the "Directory Display Name" field and click on "create a user with activation password"
B. Login to BlackBerry Administration Console and click on "create a user", enter the user's full
name in the "Directory Display Name" field and click on "create a user without activation password"
C. Login to BlackBerry Administration Console and click on "create a user" enter the user's email
address in the "Email Address" field and click on "create a user with generating activation password"
D. Login to BlackBerry Administration Console and click on "create a user", enter the user's email
address in the "Email Address" field and click on "create a user without activation password"
Answer: D

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NO.8 What functions are available when a device has been enrolled under the BlackBerry Protect
program?
A. View Location, Play Sound, Display a Message, Lock Device, or Wipe Device
B. View Location, Play Sound, Display a Message, Lock Device, or change BBID password
C. View Location, Play Sound, Display a Message, Rename Device, or Lock Device
D. View Location, Play Sound, Display a Message, Lock Device, or change the device PIN
Answer: A

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NO.9 When searching for users with a specific software configuration assigned, the following
message is displayed: "The BlackBerry Administration Service cannot find the records you were
looking for. Verify the search criteria you specified and try again." What is the MOST likely cause and
corrective action to take?
A. The search modules threw an exception; log out and try the search again.
B. The search resulted in no matches; make sure search terms are valid and try again if the result
was unexpected.
C. The search was not able to connect to the configuration database to submit the search; verify
connectivity to the database server and try again.
D. The search module did not understand the criteria; make sure search terms are valid and try
again.
Answer: B

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NO.10 What administrative tasks can be performed using the BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
Option?
A. Setup an enterprise activation password, specify a new password and lock a device and assign a
new device to a user account.
B. Setup an enterprise activation password, specify a new password and lock a device, delete all
device data and deactivate a device and assign a new device to a user account.
C. Setup an enterprise activation password, specify a new password and lock a device, delete all
device data and deactivate a device, assign a new device to a user account, send a PIN message to
the administrator.
D. Setup an enterprise activation password and assign a new device to a user account.
Answer: B

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NO.1 Mike from Miller Inc. created a forecast showing a need for 100 staplers by June 1. Currently there are
10 staplers in inventory. Existing sales orders have a committed quantity of 50 staplers. When Mike runs
MRP to produce a production order to manufacture staplers, the recommended production order is for 90
staplers. Why does MRP recommend this amount?
A. The maximum stock requirement is set to 90.
B. MRP never considers sales orders as demand.
C. The minimum stock requirement is set to 10.
D. The planning definitions are set to consume forecasts.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Your client has asked for a report on service contract history. What is the easiest way to identify the
correct fields needed in the report?
A. With a service contract in the active window, open the Query Wizard. It will automatically show the
table and field names for the active window.
B. Open a service contract document and right-mouse click on a field to see the table and field name.
C. Reference the DI-API online help the see the table and field names for the service contract object.
D. Open a service contract and toggle the System Information view to see the table and field names at the
bottom of the screen.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A delivery document is created for a shipment of 10 printers to Madison and Daughters Inc. One of the
employees creates an A/R invoice but forgets to reference the existing delivery document. Madison and
Daughters Inc. uses perpetual inventory. What unplanned effect will occur by posting these two unrelated
documents in the system?
A. The customer will be charged for 20 printers.
B. There will be a posting to an inventory variance account.
C. The invoice will reverse the previous entry to the cost of sales account.
D. The inventory account will be credited for 20 printers.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Ronald, the buyer at Treadwell Tires, created a purchase order for two items from a vendor. A week
later, just before the vendor was to deliver those items, Ronald called to add a third item to the order.
However, Ronald did not add the third item to the existing purchase order. The vendor delivers all three
items at once. What is the most efficient way for the warehouse clerk to receive the three items into the
warehouse?
A. Copy the two items from the purchase order to a goods receipt PO and manually add a row in the good
receipt PO for the third item.
B. Create a separate purchase order for the third item, before referencing both purchase orders in one
goods receipt PO.
C. Create one goods receipt PO for the 2 items on the purchase order and a second goods receipt PO to
receive the third item.
D. Instead of using a goods receipt PO, use the inventory goods receipt to receive the items.
Answer: A

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NO.5 During Business Blueprint, the customer indicated they want to run perpetual inventory with moving
average valuation method. They went into production a week ago and they now want some existing
products to use standard cost valuation instead. How can this be accomplished?
A. The moving average valuation method is only a default, and can be changed to standard cost for an
item at any time.
B. Once an item has been imported into SAP Business One, the valuation method is fixed and the items
must be deleted and re-imported to change the method.
C. As long as there are no open transactions and there is no inventory for the item, they can change the
valuation method.
D. They can move the items to an item group with the standard cost valuation method. This automatically
changes the valuation method.
Answer: C

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NO.6 The customer successfully went live last week. What is the best method for the implementation
consultant to maintain the continuous reliability of the customer system?
A. Install the Service Manager
B. Create a Service Level Agreement
C. Activate the services of the remote support platform for SAP Business One
D. Upgrade the customer system to the latest patch level
Answer: C

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NO.7 SG Products will go live tomorrow. The A/R and A/P balances need to be transferred from the legacy
system. How should the implementation consultant proceed to ensure that the A/R and A/P control
accounts are correct and up to date in the new system?
A. Import all open sales and purchase orders from the legacy system. The control accounts will then be
correct.
B. Copy the balances from both the Profit and Loss and the Balance Sheet legacy accounts so that the
control accounts are correct.
C. Copy the A/P and A/R account balances from the legacy Balance Sheet. The control accounts will then
be correct.
D. Import the open invoice balances for each individual business partner. The control accounts will then
be correct.
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are in the project preparation phase of a customer implementation at Ruby Manufacturing. So far
everything has gone to plan. Which of these could signal an unexpected project overrun?
A. The company will run the manufacturing add-on from an SAP partner that was recommended.
B. There are 15 employees who will need to work with SAP Business One.
C. You hear a rumor that two new logistics warehouses will be opening in the next month.
D. The production manager will also act as a functional lead on the project.
Answer: C

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NO.9 When Jade Logistics creates a sales order, they want to see the description for the item so they can
communicate this to the customer. How can this requirement be met?
A. In the sales order, right-mouse click in the item code field to see the item description.
B. This information is standard in the sales order and you can make it visible in the sales order row using
form settings.
C. Once an item is selected for the sales order, the description and other item specifications are
automatically provided in the Logistics tab of the order.
D. Add a user-defined field in the item row to display the description for the item.
Answer: B

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NO.10 The client wants to continue the numbering of invoices from the legacy system, so that there are no
gaps in the numbering. Additionally, sales quotations are issued by multiple employees, and the
numbering of sales quotations should continue for each employee. How can both these requirements be
implemented in SAP Business One?
A. In each user account, set the first and last document numbers for each document type.
B. Set the first invoice number using the document numbering function. In the same function create
multiple numbering series for sales quotations.
C. Set the first number for each type of document using the document numbering function.
D. Using the document settings function, set one document numbering range for invoices, and multiple
ranges for sales quotation documents.
Answer: B

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NO.11 What happens when a default payment method for customers is changed in the General Settings?
A. Any new customer master records will default to this payment method, but existing records will not
change.
B. New and existing customer master records will automatically receive this payment method.
C. When a new customer master record is created, a pop up box will appear with a choice of available
payment methods listed in General Settings.
D. When a new customer master record is created, the default payment method is assigned and cannot
be changed.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following are possible business partner master types?
Note. There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Buyers
B. Leads
C. Employees
D. Vendors
E. Customers
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.13 The sales manager wants to be informed when a sales employee issues an order that would produce a
gross profit less than 25%. However, he does not want the sales process to be blocked.
What is the easiest way to implement this.?
A. Use an alert with a predefined condition for gross profit deviation.
B. Schedule the Sales Analysis report to run when the gross profit is below the threshold.
C. Add a user-defined field to the sales order document, with a query to report when the gross profit is
less than 25%.
D. Use an approval procedure with a predefined condition for gross profit deviation.
Answer: A

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NO.14 The implementation consultant has just demonstrated the service type purchase order to the client.
The client lead is very concerned that they have to select from the entire list of G/L accounts when they
create a service type purchase order. There are several accounts that the client lead can select for
different types of services. What can the consultant suggest to help the client lead?
A. Define a project for each type of service, and associate a G/L account. When the client lead selects the
project, the G/L account is used.
B. Add a user-defined field to the purchase order row, with a list of valid values for the short list of
accounts. The client lead can choose from the short list.
C. Add user-defined values to the G/L account field in the purchase order row, with a fixed list of values
containing the short list of G/L accounts. The client lead can choose from the short list.
D. Set the short list of G/L accounts as default accounts on the Purchasing tab in the G/L Account
Determination.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Top Toys defined their sub-periods as months. How often should they run the period-end closing
utility?
A. They are required to run the period-end closing utility both at the end of each month and at the end of
the fiscal year.
B. Depending on their financial processes, they should run the period-end closing utility at the end of the
fiscal year and also can run it at the end of each month.
C. Depending on their financial processes, they can run the period-end closing utility at the end of each
month and also at the end of each quarter.
D. Because they defined their sub-periods as months, the system requires them to run the period-end
closing utility at the end of each month.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C_TFIN52_05
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Solution Consultant Financials - Financial Accounting with SAP ERP 2005)
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Total Q&A: 299 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which of the following about vendor transaction is correct (Multi)? (Choose Two)
A. A vendor down payment request is a noted item.
B. A vendor down payment request cannot be included in payment program to produce down payment
C. A vendor down payment is cleared after final invoice is received from vendor.
D. Vendor down payment is shown on balance sheet under normal reconciliation account for payables.
E. Special g/l transaction is one, which is included in spl purpose ledger under coding block in G/L
account
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose Three)
A. A house bank can be assigned to a business area within the payment program configuration
B. A House bank account can be defined in more than one currency
C. The payments program can use a different House bank for each different payment method
D. When creating a House bank, you do not need to specify the country.
E. House bank master data must be created in advance, before assigning the House bank to a payment
method in the payment program configuration
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.3 Chart of depreciation is a catalog of country specific depreciation areas structured according to various
business aspects
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.4 You define a financial statement version in two steps: (Choose Two)
A. Enter in the directory of financial statement versions
B. Define hierarchy levels and assign accounts
C. None of the above
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Highest priority for deriving functional area is:
A. Manual Entry
B. Validation
C. CO document
D. Substitution
E. CO Master Data
Answer: A

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NO.6 You define number assignment as either internal or external
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.7 Payment Medium Workbench. (Choose Three)
A. New format can be created with little programming experience.
B. PMW facilitates uniformity.
C. Before PMW it is easy to maintain the program used in payment media.
D. PMW facilitates for select vendor open items during automatic payment run
E. In PMW format can easily be changed with making modification.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.8 In a Payment method definition: (Choose Two)
A. Define allowed currency for company code
B. Define allowed currency for country level
C. Define a maximum and min payment
D. Define house bank link
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 Cross company code Transaction
A. For cross company code transaction no configuration needs to be maintained
B. Cross company code document Transaction number contain company code of second
company number, document number of first company code and fiscal year.
C. All wrong
Answer: C

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NO.10 Layout for the master data of each asset class defines
A. number of tab pages
B. field groups that appear on tab pages
C. names of tab pages
D. all are correct
Answer: D

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NO.11 Chart of accounts can be modified to fit your requirements, but chart of depreciation is always country
specific
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.12 Chart of depreciation (Choose Three)
A. is assigned to company code
B. you cannot add/delete additional areas
C. it is also possible to open depreciation areas after the production start of the system
D. you can delete areas you do not need
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.13 An account group (multi) (Choose Three)
A. Is defined for every company code.
B. Defines the number range for a mater record.
C. Uses a field status group to control the field layout for the maintenance of mater records
D. Determines one-time accounts for accounts payable and accounts receivable.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.14 Chart of depreciation is assigned to company code and necessary data for asset accounting is added
to company code. Hence company code is available for use in asset accounting
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.15 Asset class is a selection criterion in all standard reports in FI-AA
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following statements about financial reporting are correct.?
A. When displaying a financial statement, the system can automatically calculate the profit and loss
statement result.
B. You can obtain a summarized financial statement for any hierarchy level defined in the financial
statement version
C. A financial statement version cannot include more than one company code, unless you are using FI-LC
D. A financial statement version displays either a balance sheet or a profit and lost statement, not both.
E. The system can translate a financial statement into any currency for reporting purposes.
Answer: E

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NO.17 Drilldown reporting is a tool that enables you to analyze G/L account transaction figure and financial
statements
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.18 When you create asset master records this data is automatically adopted from the asset class you
specify
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.19 All reconciliation accounts and all G/L accounts with open item transactions in foreign currency must
be assigned to the G/L account for realized losses and gains. Which of the following options exist for this
assignment: (Choose Two)
A. A single G/L account can not be used per currencies and currency types.
B. A single G/L account can be used per currency.
C. A single G/L account can not be used per currency type
D. A single G/L account can be used for all currencies and currency types
Answer: B,D

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NO.20 Each company code has its own number range and company codes cannot share number ranges
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.21 Several charts of depreciation can also be assigned to an asset class
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.22 Screen layout rules control
A. field selection
B. all are correct
C. maintenance level
D. references/copies
Answer: B

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NO.23 Profit and Loss using the Period Accounting and Cost of Sales Accounting:
A. The operating result can be different.
B. In Cost of Sales accounting, the output of a period and the total cost of this period are
summarized
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
E. In period accounting the sales revenue for a period and sales costs of the period are
summarized.
Answer: D

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NO.24 You cannot specify attributes of each individual depreciation area
A. true
B. false
Answer: B

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NO.25 Debit Balance Check. (Choose Three)
A. Debit balance check can be maintained in the Vendor line items.
B. Vendor who has a debit balance, all of his line items always shown in the exception list
C. We can change the debit balance check.
D. Debit balance check can be carried out after payment run.
E. Debit Balance check is required if Vendor has a debit balance.
F. Debit balance check is carried out after payment proposal.
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.26 mySAP ERP delivers standard depreciation areas and additional areas cannot be defined
A. true
B. false
Answer: B

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NO.27 Asset classes (Choose Five)
A. consist of a master data section and a depreciation area section
B. for each depreciation area you can propose depreciation attributes for assets, you can choose that
they be specified by the system
C. are assigned to at least one chart of depreciation
D. consist of a master data section only
E. asset classes are created at client level
F. for each depreciation area you can propose depreciation attributes for assets
G. you can suppress individual depreciation areas in each asset class
H. asset classes are created at company code level
Answer: A,B,C,E,G

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NO.28 Which of following statements are correct?
A. The customer master data comparison program compares which master records are already created in
financial accounting but not yet created in sales and distribution.
B. The customer master data compares the customers in the legacy system with the customers in the R/3
System.
C. The customer master data comparison program compares which master records are already created in
purchasing but not yet in sales and distribution.
D. The customer mater data comparison program checks whether the customer master record contains a
telephone number.
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which of the following statements about creating customer master records are correct?
(Choose Four)
A. The company code is always a required entry.
B. An account group always gets assigned to a customer.
C. Information on each screen may be defined in configuration as mandatory, suppressed or optional,
depending upon the company code
D. The account number may be assigned by the user externally.
E. Information on each screen may be defined in configuration as mandatory, suppressed or optional,
depending upon the account group
Answer: B,C,D,E

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NO.30 Controlling area can include one or more company codes
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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