2014年2月24日星期一

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Exam Code: 6402
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya IP Office Implementation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 63 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 The customer wants to rack mount an IP500 system. The room that the system will be installed in has a
25" width rack with space in it. Which additional equipment is needed to install the system in a rack?
A. a Standard 19" Rack
B. yellow2meterinterconnect cables
C. an Uninterruptable Power Supply
D. an IP400 Rack Mounting Kit
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which tool can be used to convert .wav files to the formats used by Embedded Voicemail?
A. Advanced File Upgrade
B. HTMLconverter
C. Save Files asfeature within Manager
D. LVM Greeting Utility
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer with digital stations uses their outbound digital lines at 95% of capacity.
Which variable should be considered when planning for future growth?
A. the number of VCM channels
B. the number of hunt groups
C. the number of users
D. the number of trunks
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two steps must be completed to get Embedded Voice Mail (EVM) Dial by Name to work correctly?
(Choose two.)
A. Add names to the system directory.
B. Users need to record theirnames.
C. Configure DialBy Name action off Auto Attendant.
D. EmbeddedVoicemail code is set.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Given the following Short Codes and system settings:
What will happen after a user dials 500?
A. The system will waitforadditional digits and timeout if no additional digits are presented.
B. The system will immediately present a wave off tone as thereis a conflict.
C. The system will immediately dial Extn203.
D. The system willdial Extn 203 after four seconds.
Answer: D

Avaya   6402   6402

NO.6 In the exhibit, the User Profile for Amy Clement shows button programming. All buttons have a small
lock that appears to the left of the button.
What does the lock indicate?
A. The buttons can be changed or configured by the user.
B. The buttons only appearwhen the useris set to be a Public User.
C. The buttons have been programmed within User Rights.
D. The buttons ate unavailable to users setas Basic Worker.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two features arc supported by the Embedded Voicemail on the IP Office platform? (Choose two.)
A. Network Mailbox
B. Voicemail to Email
C. Virtual DistributionList
D. Public Distribution Box
E. DTMFBreakout from mailbox
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 When manually setting up an IP telephone, which setting represents the IP address of the IP Office.?
A. Phonetyp
B. SwitchSv
C. CallSv
D. Filetyp
Answer: C

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NO.9 Given the following System Short Codes and system settings:
What will happen if a user attempts to dial the 500 Short Code?
A. Extension 203 will be dialed.
B. Extension 210 will be dialed
C. Extension 210 will be dialed after 4 seconds.
D. The system will timeout and no extension will be dialed.
Answer: A

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NO.10 In Manager, where can the voicemail type be selected for the IP Office to use Embedded Voicemail?
A. Line form
B. User form
C. System form
D. Auto Attendant form
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 6005-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Communication Server 1000 Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 67 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A customer has deployed a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Ris.7.0 system at their
site, and have
asked that a swap using the using the Element Manager Pones tool on the two telephone
sets shown in
the print-out be performed What should the customer be told regarding this request?
A. These two telephones cannot be swapped because they do not have compatible TN types
B. These two telephones can be swapped because they are both assigned to TGAR 1
C. These two telephones can be swapped because they both have the same VCE Class of
service
D. These two telephones can not be swapped because they are not in the same Call Pickup
group
Answer: A

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NO.2 A technician is upgrading an exiting option 11C Rls. 5.5 system to a Communication
Server (CS) 1000E
Rls. 7.0 standard Availability with a single Media Gateway 1000E chasses . A CPMG, Co-
Resident Server
card is being deployed during the upgrade. This is a stand-alone system that is not part of a
larger
network so the CPMG will act as its own Primary Security Server Which supplication
deployment
combination will be deployed on the CPMG server for this customer?
A. CS+SS+EM
B. CS+SS+SIPL
C. CS+SS
D. CS+SS+NRS
Answer: A

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NO.3 A Customer has deployed a Communication Server000 Rls. 7.0 system at their site
Their states
department is expanding and has asked that five new telephones be added with the same
capabilities as
the existing telephones in the department Which programming command should be used to
complete this
task?
A. Move to DN
B. Move form TN
C. Copy from DN
D. Copy from TN
Answer: D

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NO.4 A technician is planning to implement a single IP telephony node for a Co-Resident
Communication
Server (CS) 1000E system at release 7.0 Which components can be configured within the
node?
A. Virtual trunk gateways, virtual loops, Personal directory, IM and presence publisher
B. SMRN for MAS, SIP Line Gateway, Personal Directory
C. IP Media services, SIP Line Gateway, Personal directory, SIP Gateway
D. SIP Line Gateway, TPS, Personal directory, AML link, Voice gateway codecs
Answer: C

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NO.5 A CUSTOMER WITH A Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 5.5 with two IPMGs is
upgrading their
system to release 7.0 The upgraded system will have two IP Media Gateways Which two
statements are
true regarding DSP resources for the IP Media Gateways in the upgraded system? (Choose
two)
A. DSP resources are no longer required for inter-IPMG calls
B. DSP resources are localized to a particular IPMG where the DSP resource is located
C. DSP resources are considered system resources and are not localized to a particular
chassis
D. DSP resources are required for TDM to IP calls
Answer: B, D

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NO.6 A customer has asked if the Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls, 7.0 system can
prowde Executive
users with the ability to selectively drop people that have been added to a conference Based
on the
print-outs and assuming the CSD Key has been programmed and the Class of Service
assigned is CDCA
which capabilities are current available to the user of extension 2006?
A. The user can not see the conference display count or selectively disconnect callers
B. The user can see the conferee display count and can selectively disconnect callers
C. The user can see the conferee display count but can not selectively disconnect callers
D. The user cannot see the conferee display count but can selectively disconnect callers
Answer: B

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NO.7 A technician has previously scheduled Subscriber Manager to build a new telephone
account for the
subscriber John Smith at midnight. However, the next morning it is discovered an account
has not been
provisioned What should be done next?
A. Look at ss_common logs in Linux base
B. Within UCM, look at OAM logs under Tools->logs
C. Within UCM, look at Security Event logs under Tools-> logs
D. Look at cs_console logs in Linux base
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer has installed a Media Gateway Controller (MGC) and would like to change
the baud rite
settings for the SDI ports, The bind rates for all Serial Data Interface (SDI) ports on the MGC
are
configurable through Call Server Which overlay is used to configure the MGC SDI ports?
A. LD 137
B. LD 117
C. LD 97
D. LD 17
Answer: D

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NO.9 A customer purchased a new Communication Server 1000E SA system with five media
gateways which
include MG 1: CPMG (Call Server, Signaling Server, Media Gateway Controller) MG2: Media
Gateway
Controller MG3: Media Gateway Controller MG4: Media Gateway Controller MG5: Media
Gateway
Controller Which statement is true regarding the configuration of Media Gateway 1.?
A. The Call Server and Media Gateway share the same ELAN IP address
B. The Call Server, Signaling Server, and Media Gateway share the same ELAN IP address.
C. The Call Server and Media Gateway have different IP addresses
D. The call Server, Signaling Server, and Media Gateway have different IP addresses
Answer: C

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NO.10 A customer is preparing to install software on the CPMG Server and would like to
display the boot
sequence on the system terminal for the BIOS ROM, and Operating System Which port on
the CPMG
services this information?
A. Frontface TTY Port 2
B. Frontface TTY Port 1
C. Backplane 3-port connection TTY Port 0
D. Frontface Embedded LAN (ELAN) port0
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 3306
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Contact Recording and Avaya Quality Monitoring Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 You are planning to install an Avaya Contact Recorder on customer site that is using an Avaya
Communication Manager as a PBX.
Which two devices should reachable by the Contact Recorder? (Choose two)
A. Avaya Session Manager
B. Avaya Application Enablement Server
C. Avaya IP Telephones
D. Avaya Communication Manager Gateway
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 When an Avaya Contact Recording server is installed with more than one Network Interface
Card
(NIC), what should be set to indicate which NIC to use for Audio and screen content streams?
A. General Setup > Recorder > Replay Server(s)
B. General Setup > Recorder > Key Management Server
C. General Setup > Recorder > IP address on this server to use for recordings
D. General Setup > Recorder URL(s) of external port(s) to connect to
Answer: C

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NO.3 A technician is configuring the Avaya Contact Recording to work in a CS1000 environment with
AST recording.
Which entry must be added in the Avaya Contact Recording properties file for this configuration to
work correctly?
A. cc.v6=false
B. aacc.v6=false
C. cc.v6=true
D. aacc.v6=true
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which three directories should be excluded from anti-virus software running on the Avaya
Quality
Monitoring Server? (Choose three)
A. PostgresSQL directory
B. QM directory
C. Tomcat directory
D. SQL Server Files and directories
E. Program Files directory
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.5 A customer has installed two Network Interface Cards (NICs) on an Avaya Contact Recording
server, and they are unable to capture Real-time Transport protocol (RTP) packets.
What are three possible reasons they are encountering this problem? (Choose three)
A. The wrong NIC has been selected to use for RTP .
B. Both NICs belong to the same subnet, and are on a different subnet than CLAN/H323, and AES
IP address defined.
C. There is no network path between both NICs and the recorded IP phones.
D. There is no network path between the Avaya Aura® Communication Manager Media resources
and the NIC on the Avaya Contact Recording server to use for RTP .
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 For an Avaya Quality Monitoring Server, which three items should be backed up? (Choose
three)
A. eCorder directory
B. Avaya Quality Monitoring Database
C. Avaya Quality Monitoring Windows Register key
D. postgressql directory
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 In the enterprise Reporting Webpage, which two troubleshooting tests are available under ETL
tasks?
A. Test Quality Monitoring Connection and Test Apache Tomcat Connection
B. Test Extract and Test Quality Monitoring Connection
C. Test Extract and Test Reporter Gateway
D. Test File Locations and Test Database Connection
Answer: D

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NO.8 What are two types of reports which can be generated using Enterprise Reporting? (Choose
two)
A. Calibration Reports
B. Call by Call Reports
C. Real Time Reports
D. Graphical Reports
E. Trending Reports
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 The license Avaya Contact Recording a three digit code is needed. What is this code called,
and
where can it be found?
A. Avaya CR License Code; Recorder Status > Ports
B. License Generation key; System > License
C. Avaya CR License Code; System > License
D. License Generation key; generation Setup > Recorder
Answer: B

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NO.10 Your customer is asking questions about the reliability of their new Avaya Contact Recording
system. They have only one physical recorder.
As far as reliability is concerned, which two options would be available for your customer?
(Choose two)
A. The operating system and call database should be RAID 1 and the recording storage area
should be RAID 5
B. Use a fault tolerant Storage Area Network (SAN)
C. Record calls directly to a network attached storage (NAS)
D. Record calls directly to a tape drive
E. Use any backup software to back up the system daily
Answer: A,B

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NO.1 A user belongs to both Group 1 and Group 2 and you want that user to see a specific folder. What
folder security settings would you use to enable the user to view the folder?
A.Set the view right to granted for Group 1 and not specified for Group 2 and also not specified for the
Everyone group
B.Set the view right to denied for Group 1 and granted for Group 2
C.Set the view right to not specified for Group 1 and not specified for Group 2
D.Set the view right to granted for Group 1 and denied for Group 2
E.Create a custom access level and grant for Group 1 and deny for Group 2
Answer:A

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NO.2 What action would the Deployment Diagnostic Tool take when an InfoObject exists in the Central
Management Server (CMS) system database, but the corresponding file cannot be found in the File
Repository Server (FRS)?
A.Remove the InfoObject from the Central Management Server (CMS) system database, unless
otherwise specified.
B.Create a blank report as a placeholder.
C.Notify the user to republish the object.
D.Reassign the InfoObject to a new file.
Answer:A

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NO.3 Which three are benefits to the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)? (Choose three.)
A.Security
B.Administrative accessibility
C.Email notification
D.Reliability
Answer:A B D

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NO.4 Four users in the Human Resources department and six users in the Finance department need to edit
existing Web Intelligence documents. How would you set-up a secure folder structure for the different
departments so that each group of users can edit existing Web Intelligence documents?
A.Modify advanced rights on all groups.
B.Apply a predefined access level to all folders.
C.Create a custom access level and apply it to all folders.
D.Modify advanced rights on a top level folder.
Answer:C

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NO.5 What do you see when you view a Crystal Report instance that has both saved data and two
successful instances?
A.The latest data from the database
B.The oldest data from the database
C.The oldest successful instance
D.The newest successful instance
Answer:D

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NO.6 Which statement is true of a single Replication Job?
A.Has two or more origin sites and no destination sites
B.Has only one origin site and only one destination site
C.Has one or more origin sites and only one destination site
D.Has one or more origin sites and possibly many destination sites
Answer:B

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NO.7 Which three application servers can you deploy Web Archive (WAR) files to using wdeploy? (Choose
three.)
A.Oracle Containers for J2EE
B.SAP Netweaver
C.JRun
D.Sun Java Application Server
Answer:A B D

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NO.8 What is the difference between one-way replication and two-way replication?
A.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication,
content only travels from Destination site to Origin site.
B.In one-way replication, content only travels from Destination site to Origin site. In two-way replication,
content can travel from Origin site to Destination site, or from Destination site to Origin site.
C.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication,
content also travels only from Origin site to Destination site but this operation can happen more than once.
D.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication,
content also travels from Origin site to Destination site but this operation can happen more than once.
Answer:D

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NO.9 Which three parameters can you specify in the command line for wdeploy? (Choose three.)
A.Web Server Type
B.CMS Administrator Username
C.Deployment Parameters
D.Deployment Actions
Answer:A C D

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NO.10 Which replication object would you schedule?
A.Replication Job
B.Replication List
C.Replication Connection
D.Replication Package
Answer:A

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NO.11 Which directory is the bootstrap file saved in by default on the Windows platform?
A.Web Services
B.Logging
C.FileStore
D.Win32_x86
Answer:D

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NO.12 How do you change the system database properties for the Central Management Server (CMS)?
A.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) in the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), which is
pointing to the remote CMS, stop the SIA and go to the Configuration tab.
B.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) in the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), which is
pointing to the local CMS, stop the SIA and go to the Startup tab.
C.Select the CMS in the Central Management Console (CMC), stop the service and go to the
Configuration tab.
D.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA), which is pointing to the local CMS, stop the service and go
to the Configuration tab.
Answer:D

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NO.13 How do you set-up a configuration template for a Web Intelligence Processing Server?
A.Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to the Server Template area and click on Add
New Template.
B.Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to properties of the specific server and click
on Add New Template.
C.Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to the Server Template area and click on Set
Configuration Template.
D.Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to properties of the specific server and click on
Set Configuration Template.
Answer:D

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NO.14 Where are the properties for the Event Server stored?
A.In the boot.ini file on the machine where the Event Server is running
B.In the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
C.In the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) bootstrap file
D.In the Event Server service properties
Answer:B

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NO.15 Which web language was used to develop InfoView?
A.Perl
B.Java
C.PHP
D.C++
Answer:B

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NO.16 In which two locations could you configure the port numbers for the local Central Management Server
(CMS)? (Choose two.)
A.In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), under the Startup tab for the Server Intelligence Agent
(SIA)
B.In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), under the Configuration tab for the CMS
C.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Server settings for the CMS
D.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) settings
Answer:A C

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NO.17 Where do you configure the Login action for Desktop Intelligence users in a 3-tier mode?
A.Under Settings in the Desktop Intelligence client
B.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Desktop Intelligence Cache
Server
C.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Central Management Server
(CMS)
D.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Desktop Intelligence
application
Answer:C

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NO.18 Which servers should you examine if you are unable to schedule a Web Intelligence document?
(Choose three.)
A.Web Intelligence Processing Server
B.Connection Server
C.Adaptive Job Server
D.Output File Repository Server (FRS)
Answer:A C D

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NO.19 Which type of file does the replication process use to transfer content?
A.BIAR
B.REP
C.Binary
D.BOMain
Answer:A

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NO.20 You are migrating content into a new system. Which task must you perform to maintain the system
integrity (CUID)?
A.Define the LDAP configuration
B.List the groups to be migrated
C.Define custom security settings
D.List the active content folders
Answer:A

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Exam Code: 60-DSFA680
Exam Name: Altiris (Altiris Deployment Solution Foundation 6.8)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 99 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 AClient (on a managed computer) has been configured to use a multicast packet to locate the
Deployment Server.
Which statement is now true?
A. moving this computer to a different Deployment System requires the AClient agent be reconfigured
B. images can be sent using unicast packets or multicast packets
C. this setting configures images to be sent to the computer using multicasting technology
D. the Deployment Server must be configured to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which Altiris utility creates the necessary media to run the Initial Deployment job from a CD?
A. ImageExplorer
B. RapiDeploy
C. PXE Configuration Utility
D. Initial Deployment Configuration Utility
E. Boot Disk Creator
Answer: E

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NO.3 Deployment Solution's Simple Install Helper will check for and install which required third-party
software? (Choose two.)
A. Java
B. DirectX
C. ActiveX
D. .NET framework
E. Pre-boot automation operating systems
F. SQL
Answer: DF

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NO.4 AClient has not been password protected.
Which three tasks can be performed after right-clicking on the AClient icon from a managed computer?
(Choose three.)
A. initiate Microsoft's Sysprep Utility in preparation for imaging
B. view the AClient log file when log files have been enabled
C. change the name of the managed computer as it appears in the Deployment Console
D. change the NetBIOS name of the managed computer
E. monitor AClient's communication with the Deployment Server
F. reinstall AClient
G. edit the AClient template file
Answer: BCE

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NO.5 Which required symbol identifies the opening and closing of a Deployment token?
A. %
B. #
C. $
D. *
Answer: A

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NO.6 AClient has been installed on your Windows XP managed computers.
Which three methods can be used to change the settings AClient is currently using? (Choose three.)
A. from the Deployment Console, right-click on the computer and select Change Agent Settings
B. from the Deployment Console, select Tools > AClient > Configurations
C. from the managed computer, select Start > All Programs > Altiris > AClient > Configuration
D. from the managed computer, double-click the AClient icon located in the system tray and select
Properties
E. from the Deployment Console, double-click on a computer and edit the client properties
F. use the Deployment Console to reinstall AClient with the desired settings
Answer: ADF

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NO.7 Which Deployment Solution component stores the main Deployment System program files?
A. Deployment Server
B. Deployment Database
C. Deployment Share
D. Microsoft DHCP Server
E. Deployment PXE Server
F. Deployment Console
Answer: C

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NO.8 When using the DOS operating system, image files with an .EXE file extension _____?
A. cannot be deployed using a Deployment job
B. must be converted to .IMG before they can be deployed with a Deployment job
C. cannot be converted to .IMG files
D. can be deployed without using additional Altiris imaging software
Answer: D

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NO.9 You are using the Deployment Console's New Job Wizard to migrate a computer's personality from
one computer to different computer.
What happens to the names of these two computers during this process?
A. The destination computer is automatically given a new unique name.
B. The source computer is automatically renamed and the destination computer gets the original name of
the source computer.
C. The two computers will end up with identical names, therefore you must rename one of the computers
manually.
Answer: B

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NO.10 When capturing a computer's personality, the application settings used for this process are located in
which file type?
A. .INI
B. .A2I
C. .ASI
D. .PBT
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which Deployment Console method lets you work with software virtualization layers?
A. using a Deployment job
B. selecting Tools > Software Virtualization
C. right-clicking on a computer and selecting Software Virtualization > Manage Layers
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which utility removes the security ID (SID) before making an image of a computer?
A. SIDgenerator
B. SetupCapture
C. Sysprep
D. ImageExplorer
E. SIDconfig
Answer: C

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NO.13 How does a Deployment Solution job let you work with software virtualization layers? (Choose two.)
A. layers can be imported to a managed computer
B. layers can be created
C. the state of a layer can be managed (activated, deactivated, and so forth)
D. the content of a layer can be modified
Answer: AC

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NO.14 When using Altiris PXE servers in a Deployment System, which PXE statement is true?
A. Multiple PXE servers can only be installed if a router separates them.
B. If a PXE server is configured to delay its response, it will respond only if no other PXE server responds
immediately.
C. A managed computer only uses the first PXE server it hears from.
D. Configuring multiple PXE servers to respond immediately causes errors on the managed computers.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which statement about deploying computer image files is true?
A. The RDeploy switch used to preserve existing partitions is enabled by default.
B. Aborting the deployment process (after imaging as started) corrupts the destination computer's hard
drive.
C. The maximum space required on the destination hard drive is equal to the size of the image file.
D. The imaging process is non-destructive, and adds data to what is already stored on an existing hard
drive partition.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Deployment Agents (such as AClient) can be installed on remote computers using the Remote Agent
Installer, but only when the remote computers are running which four operating systems? (Choose four.)
A. Windows 2000
B. Windows 95
C. Windows NT
D. Windows XP
E. Windows 2003
F. Linux
G. Windows 98
Answer: ACDE

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NO.17 You can use _____ to ensure that your PXE servers are servicing the correct managed computers.
A. IP blocking
B. Conditions
C. MAC filtering
D. NetBIOS name recognition
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which program lets you edit image files after they have been created?
A. ImgViewer
B. ImageExplorer
C. ImageEditor
D. ImageManager
E. ImgManager
Answer: B

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NO.19 You have deployed a hardware independent image to an ACPI Uniprocessor computer and now the
computer will not start.
What is the probable cause?
A. the wrong hardware abstraction layer (HAL) was deployed
B. Sysprep was not run on the source computer
C. the ACPI Uniprocessor computer does not support hardware independent images
D. a clean Windows installation was not performed on the source computer before creating the hardware
independent image.
Answer: A

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NO.20 While imaging computers, Deployment Solution supports the use of UNDI drivers.
Which UNDI driver statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. UNDI drivers are written specifically to work with the Altiris automation process.
B. UNDI drivers must be downloaded and installed from Intel's Web site before they can be used.
C. UNDI drivers let you image computers without obtaining a specific manufacturer's network driver for
each network card.
D. UNDI drivers do not support multicasting of hard disk images across the entire network.
E. UNDI drivers support multicasting of hard disk images across the entire network.
Answer: CD

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NO.1 In DLP 7.0 and later, DLP Network Policy may be configured to allow an end user to release one of their
own emails that were quarantined as a result of that DLP policy.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following statements are true about DLP policies? ose two)
A. Existing policies may be reordered.
B. Existing policies cannot be changed. They must be deleted and new policies created to replace them.
C. The DLP administrator cannot create new policies; new polices must be purchased from RSA.
D. Datacenter policies can be changed without ever losing the incremental scan results and requiring a
full scan.
E. Network, Datacenter, or Endpoint sections of a policy can be individually disabled or enabled without
affecting the other sections.
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 RSA recommends that the RSA DLP Network Interceptor should not be the last MTA in the network
before email is sent on to the Internet.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.4 Users and Groups cannot be defined in the Enterprise Manager interface. y must be brought in from an
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A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.5 The only way to monitor and or block HTTPS web traffic in a DLP Network implementation is to:
A. Use a third party Load Balancer.
B. DLP Network can never monitor HTTPS.
C. Use a third party email encryption server.
D. Use a third party proxy that supports HTTPS such as Bluecoat.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following is a new scan type available in RSA DLP Datacenter version 7.0?
A. Site scan
B. Resource scan
C. Repository scan
D. Coordinator Scan
Answer: C

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NO.7 RSA DLP Datacenter 7.0 can scan Oracle and SQL Server databases for sensitive information.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following requirements must be met to successfully run the DLP 7.0 Enterprise Manager
installation program?
A. Minimum 2 gigabytes of available ram
B. Minimum 10 gigabytes of available space
C. Minimum Processor Speed of 1.950 GHZ
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following is a tool that can be used in the RSA DLP Suite to create new content des?
A. The Entity Manager
B. The Dictionary Manager
C. The Fingerprint Manager
D. The Described Content Manager
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which two RSA DLP Network Appliances could detect employee posting company confidential
information to an online web forum? (Choose two)
A. DLP Network Sensor
B. DLP Network Controller
C. DLP Network Interceptor
D. DLP Network ICAPserver
E. DLP Suite Fingerprint Crawler
Answer: A,D

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NO.1 You are configuring the dial up options in your Windows 2000 network. While you
do so, you are studying the configuration options available to you. You notice the
term RADIUS used often during your research. What does RADIUS provide?
A. RADIUS is used to define the implementation method of Kerberos in a network.
B. RADIUS is used to define the implementation method of PKI in a network.
C. RADIUS is used to define the implementation method of Biometrics in a network.
D. RADIUS is a standard that provides authorization, authentication, identification, and
accounting services.
E. RADIUS is a standard that defines the methods used to secure the connections
between a dialup client and a dialup server.
Answer: D

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NO.2 In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Ethereal capture tool on
a Windows 2000 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following is implemented in an IPv6 environment, which helps to
increase security?
A. EFS
B. IPsec
C. Caching
D. S/MIME
E. Destination and Source Address Encryption
Answer: B

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NO.4 The exhibit shows a router with three interfaces E0, E1 and S0. Interfaces E0 and
E1 are connected to internal networks 192.168.10.0 and 192.168.20.0 respectively
and interface S0 is connected to the Internet.
The objective is to allow two hosts, 192.168.20.16 and 192.168.10.7 access to the
Internet while all other hosts are to be denied Internet access. All hosts on network
192.168.10.0 and 192.168.20.0 must be allowed to access resources on both internal
networks. From the following, select all the access list statements that are required
to make this possible.
A. access-list 53 permit 192.168.20.16 0.0.0.0
B. access-list 80 permit 192.168.20.16 0.0.0.0
C. access-list 53 deny 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
D. access-list 80 permit 192.168.10.7 0.0.0.0
E. int S0, ip access-group 53 out
F. int S0, ip access-group 80 out
Answer: BDF

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NO.5 As you become more involved in the security and networking of your organization,
you wish to learn the exact details of the protocols in use. It is suggested to you, by a
friend, that you check the RFC for each protocol. What is an RFC?
A. An RFC is a program that has a searchable index to troubleshoot network problems.
B. An RFC is a document that discusses issues surrounding the Internet, networking
technologies, and/or networking protocols.
C. An RFC is a hidden resource, which can be called up via the Windows Help file to
identify details about networking protocols.
D. An RFC is a single document that details all the communications protocols and
technologies used on the Internet.
E. An RFC is a single document that details all the communications protocols and
technologies used on an Intranet.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are creating the contingency plan, and are trying to take into consideration as
many of the disasters as you can think of. Which of the following are examples of
technological disasters?
A. Hurricane
B. Terrorism
C. Tornado
D. Virus
E. Trojan Horse
Answer: BDE

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NO.7 You work for a mid sized ISP on the West Coast of the United Kingdom. Recently
you have noticed that there are an increasing number of attacks on the Internet
routers used in the company. The routers are physically secured well, so you can be
somewhat confident the attacks are all remote. Which of the following are legitimate
threats the routers are facing, under this situation?
A. Damaged Cables
B. False Data Injection
C. Social Engineering
D. Unauthorized Remote Access
E. Denial of Service
Answer: BDE

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NO.8 If you are looking for plain-text ASCII characters in the payload of a packet you
capture using Network Monitor, which Pane will provide you this information?
A. Summary Pane
B. Packet Pane
C. Collection Pane
D. Hex Pane
E. Detail Pane
Answer: D

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NO.9 If an attacker uses a program that sends thousands of email messages to every user
of the network, some of them with over 50MB attachments. What are the possible
consequences to the email server in the network?
A. Server hard disk can fill to capacity
B. Client hard disks can fill to capacity
C. Server can completely crash
D. Network bandwidth can be used up
E. Clients cannot receive new email messages
Answer: AC

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NO.10 In your network, you manage a mixed environment of Windows, Linux, and UNIX
computers. The clients run Windows 2000 Professional and Windows NT 4.0
Workstation, while the Servers are UNIX and Linux based with custom
applications. During routine administration you successfully ping several nodes in
the network. During this you are running a packet capture for further analysis.
When examining one of the frames you notice that the Ethernet address for the
source is 1ED0.097E.E5E9 and that for the destination is 1ED0.096F.5B13. From
this information you gather that:
A. They are in different networks
B. The destination address is in the 1ED0 subnet
C. The network cards are by the same manufacturer
D. The destination address is in the 1ED0.09AA subnet
E. The source and destination share the same MAC subnet
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is the function of the HFNetChk tool from Microsoft?
A. To check for the current Hotfixes that are available from Microsoft
B. It is an upgrade to the Windows Update tool for checking on all updates
C. It is the tool that must be run prior to installing IIS 5.0
D. It is the tool that checks the network configuration of all web servers
E. To record what Hotfixes and service packs are running on the Windows machine
Answer: E

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NO.12 You are configuring the Access Lists for your new Cisco Router. The following are
the commands that are entered into the router for the list configuration.
Router(config)#access-list 145 deny tcp any 10.10.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 80
Router(config)#access-list 145 deny tcp any 10.10.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 119
Router(config)#access-list 145 permit ip any any
Router(config)#interface Serial 0
Router(config-if)#ip access-group 145 in
Router(config-if)#interface Ethernet 0
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 145 in
Router(config-if)#interface Ethernet 1
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 145 in
Router(config-if)#interface Ethernet 2
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 145 in
Based on this configuration, and using the exhibit, select the answers that identify
what the list will accomplish.
A. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access NNTP on the Internet
B. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access NNTP on network 10.10.11.0
C. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access NNTP on network 10.10.12.0
D. Deny network 10.10.10.0 to access Internet WWW sites
E. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access Internet WWW sites
Answer: AE

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NO.13 When you took over the security responsibilities at your office, you noticed there
were no warning banners on any of the equipment. You have decided to create a
warning login banner on your Cisco router. Which of the following shows the
correct syntax for the banner creation?
A. banner login C Restricted access. Only authorized users allowed to access this device.
B. login banner C Restricted access. Only authorized users allowed to access this device.
C. banner login Restricted access. Only authorized users allowed to access this device.
D. login banner Restricted access. Only authorized users allowed to access this device.
E. banner logging C Restricted access. Only authorized users allowed to access this
device. C
Answer: A

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NO.14 You have recently installed an Apache Web server on a Red Hat Linux machine.
When you return from lunch, you find that a colleague has made a few
configuration changes. One thing you notice is a .htpasswd file. What is the function
of this file?
A. It is a copy of the /etc/passwd file for Web access
B. It is a copy of the etc/shadow file for Web access
C. It is a listing of all anonymous users to the Web server
D. It is a listing of http users and passwords for authentication
E. It is a database file that can be pulled remotely via a web interface to identify currently
logged in users.
Answer: D

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NO.15 When a new user account is created in Linux, what values are assigned?
A. Shell_GID
B. SetGID
C. SetUID
D. UID
E. GID
Answer: DE

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NO.16 You are reviewing the Xinetd configuration file for the ftp service. If the following
line found in this file, what is the line's function?
redirect = 192.168.10.1 3456
A. That only 192.168.10.1 can make ftp requests
B. That only hosts in the 192.168.10.0/24 network can make ftp requests
C. That only 3456 connections are allowed to the ftp service on 192.168.10.1
D. That the overall Xinetd configuration has redirect lines in it
E. That the ftp service is redirected to IP 192.168.10.1 on port 3456
Answer: E

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NO.17 You are configuring a wildcard mask for the subnet 10.12.24.0 / 255.255.248.0.
Which of the following is the wildcard mask to use for this subnet?
A. 0.255.255.255
B. 10.12.24.255
C. 0.0.248.0
D. 255.255.248.0
E. 0.0.7.255
Answer: E

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NO.18 You are configuring the IP addressing for your network. One of the subnets has
been defined with addresses already. You run ifconfig on a host and determine that
it has an address of 172.18.32.54 with a mask of 255.255.254.0. What is the network
ID to which this host belongs?
A. 172.18.0.0
B. 0.0.32.0
C. 172.0.0.0
D. 172.18.32.32
E. 172.18.32.0
Answer: E

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NO.19 Which of the following fields are found in a user account's line in the /etc/passwd
file?
A. The User Identifier assigned to the user account
B. The home directory used by the user account
C. The number of days since the user account password was changed
D. The full name for the user account
E. The number of days until the user account's password must change
Answer: ABD

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NO.20 In the last few days, users have reported to you that they have each received two
emails from an unknown source with file attachments. Fortunately the users have
listened to your training and no one has run the attached program. You study the
attachment on an isolated computer and find that it is a program that is designed to
execute a payload when the system clock registers 10:10 PM on February 29. Which
of the following best identifies the type of program is the attachment?
A. Mail Bomb
B. Logic Bomb
C. Polymorphic Virus
D. Stealth Virus
E. Polymorphic Trojan
Answer: B

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NO.21 If you wish to change the permissions of a parent directory in your Linux system,
and want the permissions to be changed on the files and subdirectories in the parent
directory to be the same, what switch must you use?
A. -G
B. -R
C. -P
D. -S
E. -F
Answer: B

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NO.22 One way to find out more about a company's infrastructure layout is to send email
to a non-existent user of the target organization. When this email bounces back as
undeliverable, you can read the message source. Which of the following pieces of
information can be derived from the returned message source?
A. Target company's email server's hostname.
B. Target company's email server's public IP address.
C. Target company's internal IP addressing scheme.
D. Target company's email server's application name and version, if provided.
E. Target company's employees' email addresses.
Answer: ABD

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NO.23 You wish to add a new group to your Linux system. The group is called
SCNP_Admins, and is to be given a Group Identifier of 1024. What is the correct
command to add this new group?
A. addgroup SCNP_Admins -id 1024
B. groupadd -g 1024 SCNP_Admins
C. addgroup SCNP_Admins id/1024
D. groupadd id/1024 g/SCNP_Admins
E. groupadd g/1024 SCNP_Admins
Answer: B

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NO.24 You are creating the contingency plan for the network in hospital where you just
started working. The network has about 300 PCs, about 50 Servers, and is
interconnected into some of the critical patient systems for monitoring purposes.
What is the appropriate level of backup power for this type of network?
A. Building Generator
B. Personal UPS
C. Alternative Fuel-Cell Technology
D. Server Rack UPS
E. Electrical Company
Answer: A

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NO.25 You have recently hired an assistant to help you with managing the security of your
network. You are currently running an all Windows environment, and are
describing NTFS permission issues. You are using some demonstration files to help
with your discussion. You have two NTFS partitions, C:\ and D:\ There is a test file,
C:\DIR1\test.txt that is currently set so that only Administrators have Full Control.
If you move this file to the C:\DIR2 folder, what will the permissions be for this file?
A. The file will have the same permissions as D:\DIR2
B. The file permissions will remain the same
C. The file permissions will be lost
D. The file permissions will convert to Everyone - Full Control
E. The permissions will be set to whatever the CREATOR OWNER permissions are for
the D:\ partition
Answer: B

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NO.26 You are in the process of securing several new machines on your Windows 2000
network. To help with the process Microsoft has defined a set of Security Templates
to use in various situations. Which of the following best describes the Basic Security
Template?
A. This template is provided as a way to reverse the implementation of different
Windows 2000 security settings, except for user rights.
B. This template is provided so that Local Users have ideal security settings, while Power
Users have settings that are compatible with NT 4 Users.
C. This template is provided to implement suggested security settings for all security
areas, except for the following: files, folders, and Registry keys.
D. This template is provided to create the maximum level of security for network traffic
between Windows 2000 clients.
E. This template is provided to allow for an administrator to run legacy applications on a
DC.
Answer: A

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NO.27 In Windows 2000, there are four methods of implementing IPSec. They are:
1. Require Security
2 - Request Security
3 - Respond Only
4 - No IPSec Policy
Your network hosts many servers, and different security policies are in place in
different locations in the network. The Clients and Servers in your network are
configured as follows:
-You have servers numbered 1-9, which have a policy stating they require no
network traffic security.
-You have servers numbered 10-19, which have a policy stating they are not
required to be secure, but will encrypt network traffic if the client is able to receive
it.
-You have servers numbered 20-29, which have a policy stating they are required to
be secure and all network traffic they deliver must be secured.
-You have clients numbered 60-79 that are required to access secure servers 20-29.
-You have clients numbered 80-99 that are not required to access secure servers
20-29, but are required to access servers 1-9 and 10-19.
Based on the Client and Server configuration provided above, which of the
following computers will implement IPSec method 2?
A. Computers numbered 1-9
B. Computers numbered 10-19
C. Computers numbered 20-29
D. Computers numbered 60-79
E. Computers numbered 80-99
Answer: B

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NO.28 In order to properly manage the network traffic in your organization, you need a
complete understanding of protocols and networking models. In regards to the
7-layer OSI model, what is the function of the Transport Layer?
A. The Transport layer allows two applications on different computers to establish, use,
and end a session. This layer establishes dialog control between the two computers in a
session, regulating which side transmits, plus when and how long it transmits.
B. The Transport layer manages logical addresses. It also determines the route from the
source to the destination computer and manages traffic problems, such as routing, and
controlling the congestion of data packets.
C. The Transport layer packages raw bits from the Physical (Layer 1) layer into frames
(structured packets for data). Physical addressing (as opposed to network or logical
addressing) defines how devices are addressed at the data link layer. This layer is
responsible for transferring frames from one computer to another, without errors. After
sending a frame, it waits for an acknowledgment from the receiving computer.
D. The Transport layer transmits bits from one computer to another and regulates the
transmission of a stream of bits over a physical medium. For example, this layer defines
how the cable is attached to the network adapter and what transmission technique is used
to send data over the cable.
E. The Transport layer handles error recognition and recovery. It also repackages long
messages, when necessary, into small packets for transmission and, at the receiving end,
rebuilds packets into the original message. The corresponding Transport layer at the
receiving end also sends receipt acknowledgments.
Answer: E

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NO.29 In a TCP Header, what is the function of the first sixteen bits?
A. To define the type
B. To define the IP Version
C. To define the destination port number
D. To define the upper layer protocol
E. To define the source port number
Answer: E

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NO.30 In order to add to your layered defense, you wish to implement some security
configurations on your router. If you wish to have the router work on blocking TCP
SYN attacks, what do you add to the end of an ACL statement?
A. The IP addresses for allowed networks
B. The port range of allowed applications
C. The word Established
D. The word Log
E. The string: no service udp-small-servers
Answer: C

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